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1. Which business objects to promise supply are evaluated by Oracle Fusion Global Order Promising (GOP)? (Choose four). A. supplier capacity. B. supplier lead times. C. customer capacity. D. supplier calendar. E. sourcing rule.

2. What types of supply recommendations are generated from Global Order Promising (GOP)? (Choose four). A. Make. B. Cancel. C. On-hand. D. Buy. E. Transfer.

3. Which of the following business functions are part of Drop Ship Flow? (Choose four). A. Create Purchase Request and Purchase Order. B. Store Goods into Internal Warehouse. C. Schedule Order. D. Ship Goods and Enter ASN. E. Get Financial Agreement.

4. In the back-to-back fulfillment process, which of the following is a valid setup?. A. Scheduling Result = Supplier, Back-to-Back Enabled = Yes. B. Scheduling Result = Supplier. C. Scheduling Result = Internal Warehouse, Back-to-Back Enabled = No. D. Scheduling Result = Internal Warehouse, Back-to-Back Enabled = Yes.

5. Supply lines are aggregated and grouped by which of the following parameters? (Choose four). A. Item. B. Destination. C. Process. D. Source. E. Supply Type.

6. What setup is required in the Procurement offering to enable the Drop Ship process?. A. Enable the Order Holds check box. B. Enable the Requisitions check box. C. Enable the Drop Ship check box. D. Enable the Customer Sales Order Fulfillment check box. E. Store the goods in the internal warehouse.

7. Which "Organization Assignment Type" setup is required for back-to-back supply creation and fulfillment in Global Order Promising (GOP)?. A. Global. B. Local.

8. The Supply Chain Orchestration Work Area Supply Line Overview page displays supply lines that are aggregated and grouped. Which of the following form the group? (Choose four). A. Jeopardy. B. Rejections. C. Errors. D. Exceptions. E. On-Track.

9. Which three setup process is included in the Functional Setup Methodology guided process? (VALIDADO). A. Configure. B. Deploy. C. Implement. D. Plan.

10. Which of the following objects can be created automatically using the SCM Simplified Setup in each new Inventory Organization? (Choose three). A. Receiving. B. Inventory. C. Purchase. D. Manufacturing.

11. Which Functional Setup Manager roles are delivered out of the box? (Choose three). A. Application Implementation Consultant. B. Functional Owner. C. Super User. D. Application Implementation Manager.

12. In the Manage Item page, you have to provide basic information while creating these new items: (Choose three). A. Number of Items. B. Item Category. C. Item Class. D. Master Organization.

13. Fusion Applications has provided a predefined Item structure type called: A. Preliminary. B. Primary. C. Master. D. Seeded.

14. Without which object can you NOT perform any item transactions?. A. Serial Number. B. Subinventory. C. Locator. D. Lot Number.

15. Which of the following item information is determined by item operational attributes?. A. General information. B. Additional information. C. Item behavior. D. Transactional information.

16. If your company is using Unit as a base unit of measure, and Dozen and Gross are other UOMs used, assign a UOM class to these Units of Measure. A. Time. B. Count. C. Weight. D. Volume.

17. While maintaining common item structures 'Allow attribute update' setting enables you to manage which of these material controls. (Choose two). A. Lot Number. B. Supply Type. C. Serial Number. D. Cost Rollup.

18. In Fusion Applications, all the items must belong to this Item class: A. Product Data Hub item class. B. PIM item class. C. Root item class. D. Inventory item class.

19. When you try to copy an existing item to a new item, which of the following attributes is not copied?. A. Structures. B. Relationships. C. Attachments. D. Subinventories.

20. Your company wants to track additional details against a transactional document. Which Functional Object will you propose to use in Oracle SCM Cloud?. A. Descriptive Flexfield. B. Extended Flexfield. C. Key Flexfield. D. Customization.

21. Which of the following data integration approaches is used for managing issues with the transactional data received?. A. External web service. B. SaaS templates. C. Open interfaces. D. Desktop integration (ADFdi).

22. Your company wants to know the total material cost of a receipt against a Purchase Order including handling fees. Which type of accounting can be used to capture all the supply chain costs?. A. Periodic Average cost. B. Standard costing. C. FIFO costing. D. Landed cost.

23. For which of the following does receipt accounting perform accrual accounting?. A. Purchase Orders. B. Requisitions. C. Sales Orders. D. Returns.

24. Which of the following applications can ensure that your company manages all trade relationships between internal parties spread across geographies?. A. Distributed order orchestration. B. Order fulfillment. C. Global order promising. D. Supply Chain financial orchestration.

25. Receipt accounting is the application that performs the accrual accounting for these types of receipts: (Choose three). A. Returns. B. Inventory transfers. C. Project materials. D. Service.

26. Which of the following data integration approaches are used to migrate receiving, inventory, and shipping setups from one instance to another?. A. Migration services. B. Setup templates. C. Export / Import services. D. Data templates.

27. What type of accounting is used for purchase order receipts of inbound materials, services, project materials and inventory transfers?. A. Landed Cost. B. Receipt Accounting. C. Standard Cost Planning. D. Cost Accounting.

28. Your company's policies include that all the inbound materials are to be checked in the Quality department and based on the quality results, only the approved quantity can be taken into on-hand stock. Which receipt routing is used for this?. A. Direct Delivery. B. Standard Receipts. C. Inspection Required. D. Miscellaneous Receipts.

29. You want to check Item wise revision number, lot number, subinventory, serial number, and locator number while reserving an on-hand quantity. Which type of reservation is used for this?. A. High Level Reservation. B. Open Reservation. C. Low Level Reservation. D. High End Reservation.

30. In Min Max planning, which of the following is considered a supply for replenishment calculations? (VALIDADO). A. Pending Shipments. B. On-hand Balances. C. Material Issues. D. Sales Orders.

31. Due to a natural calamity, your organization lost some items in quantities. Now you want to adjust and correct the on-hand quantities to system quantities. How are you going to handle this requirement?. A. Subinventory Transfer. B. Miscellaneous Transactions. C. Interorganization Transfer. D. Movement Request Issues.

32. Which Orchestration solution can be used to manage Internal Drop shipments and Revenue Recognition?. A. Supply Chain Orchestration. B. Supply Chain Financial Orchestration. C. Distributed Order Orchestration. D. Order Management.

33. There are 127 Items to be counted 26 times a year, and there are only 258 working days in the year. How many Items can be scheduled?. A. 13. B. 16. C. 12. D. 20.

34. In your company, all the material transfers between subinventories are tracked using supporting documents. Which type of Inventory Transaction can be used to fulfill this requirement?. A. Movement Request Transfers. B. Miscellaneous Issues. C. Subinventory Transfers. D. Interorganization Transfers.

35. One of the stock locators in a warehouse in your company is completely occupied. Now the warehouse manager wants to transfer the stock to another location within the warehouse. Specify which transaction can be used. A. Location to Location Transfer. B. Subinventory Transfer. C. Miscellaneous Issues. D. Interorganization Transfer.

36. Your company frequently donates items to a charity trust. Which type of transaction can be used for this requirement?. A. Miscellaneous Issues. B. Miscellaneous Receipts. C. Interorganizational Transfers. D. User-Defined Transaction.

37. Cycle counting enabled flag selects whether the item will be considered for cycle count or not. This attribute is available in. A. Physical counts. B. Inventory parameters. C. Cycle counting orders. D. Master item.

38. Which steps of the Supply Chain Orchestration Foundation task are used for setup? (Choose three). A. Manage Supply Orchestration Attachment Categories. B. Manage Supply Order Defaulting and Enrichment Rules. C. Manage Supply Orchestration Lookups. D. Manage Demand Execution Document Creation Rules.

39. What are the functional components of Supply Chain Orchestration? (Choose three). A. Decomposition. B. Business Services. C. Orchestration. D. Order Capturing.

40. What fulfillment strategy does Drop Shipment follow?. A. Supplier-to-Supplier. B. Supplier-to-Customer. C. Supplier-to-DC. D. Supplier-to-Factory.

41. In the Consigned Inventory process, which flows are valid? (Choose three). A. payment sent to supplier. B. invoice sent to supplier. C. consignment inventory received by buyer. D. consumption advice sent to supplier.

42. In which process does the system automatically select the source of supply, reserve supply until fulfillment, and ship to the customer?. A. Back-to-Back. B. Drop Shipment. C. Consigned Inventory. D. Internal Material Transfer.

43. Which functionalities are part of Supply Chain Orchestration? (Choose four). A. receiving supply requests from several sources operating in Oracle Cloud. B. performing automated change management to match supply to demand. C. providing supply requests to Fusion Planning Central. D. providing a 360-degree view of the supply-creation process. E. launching and managing complex business processes  .

44. Your company has multiple warehouse (inventory orgs), each warehouse is divided into finished goods, and non-finished goods inventory areas. They want to use min-max planning for some items found in some inventory areas, but not for others. Is this possible?. A. No, because min-max planning is only possible at the organization level. B. Yes, because min-max can be applied to specific item-sub inventories. C. No, because min-max planning can´t be selectively applied to individual items. D. Yes, because min-max planning can be applied to both the item-organization and item sub inventory.

45. During your implementation, you are required to do setup to move items from one locator to another locator within the same inventory organization. Which two types of inventory transactions are required to accomplish this?. A. Miscellaneous receipt. B. Move request. C. Subinventory transfer. D. WIP component issue. E. Locator transfer.

46. Which field is mandatory while performing the task of creating an item organization? (VALIDADO). A. Management business unit. B. Location. C. Legal entity. D. Primary ledger.

47. Your company has a warehouse that is set up as an inventory organization. The organization has several sub inventories and locators in it. When a purchase order is generated, the receiver will not know to which sub inventory and locator the material needs to go. Your company wants the sub inventory to default for that item. Which of the following options will solve your problem?. A. Use the manage item transactions default task to create a default sub inventory for the purchased item. B. Populate the default sub inventory and restrict locator field on the item master for the purchased item. C. Use the restrict sub inventory and restrict locator flag on the item master for the purchased item. D. Use the manage sub inventories UI to default sub inventories for items.

48. An organization uses min-max planned items to generate movement requests automatically where the item´s replenishment source is another sub inventory. In this case, the min-max process should automatically generate a move request but it doesn´t happen. What is the reason?. A. Replenishment movement requests have been disabled. B. The source sub inventory was not set at the organization level. C. The source subinventory was not set at the item sub inventory level. D. A report generated at the sub inventory level.

49. Identity two statements that are true about the cost-organization relationship. A. Only inventory organizations belonging to different item Master Organizations can be part of a cost organization. B. The inventory organizations that are assigned to a cost organization must all belong to the same legal entity. C. Costing Item Validation Organization can only be item Master Organization of the underlying inventory organizations. D. Costing Item Validation Organization is used to default the Unit of Measure for costing calculations.

50. Your company is using project specific inventory for its transactions. Which three project specific details will be available on your purchase order? (VALIDADO). A. Project status. B. Project type. C. Expenditure type. D. Project number. E. Task number.

51. In the consignment process, which three methods can be used to create an invoice to make payment to your supplier. A. Create invoice through supplier portal. B. Create invoice manually in the invoice work area. C. Create invoice automatically when consigned inventory is received. D. Use spreadsheets to create consumption advice-matched invoices. E. Create invoice through action from the consignment order view.

52. Identify three item quantity types available in manage item quantities UI. A. Outbound. B. Receiving. C. Inbound. D. On-hand. E. Available.

53. As a warehouse manager, you have entered incorrect lot number for an item while completing the work order. You wanted to disable this lot but your disable lot action fails in manage lot page. Which are two reasons for this behavior?. A. Parent lots cannot be disable. B. There are open in-transit shipments for the item and lot combination. C. On-hand balance exist for the item and lot combination. D. Item is not serialized.

54. Which three are features or functions of receipt accounting?. A. Receipt accounting performs the accrual accounting for all receipts: services, supplies, project materials, and inventory. B. The receipt accounting process creates accounting distributions and posts those to subledger accounting (SLA) for processing and then into the general ledger (GL). C. Based on GAAP rules, inventory items can be accrued at receipt or period-end. D. If you do accrue at receipt, an accrued liability account is credited when the goods are received. E. If you do not accrue at receipt, an accrued liability account is credited when the goods are received.

55. Which statement is not true about project specific transfer orders? (VALIDADO). A. Project specific transfer orders are available only for inventory destinations. B. Project specific transfer orders can be created from supply chain orchestration. C. Material can be returned on a project specific transfer order. D. Project specific transfer orders can be created from self-service procurement.

56. Identify two web service used for receipt advice and receipt confirmation integration with external systems (VALIDADO). A. Receive shipment confirmation web service. B. Send receipt advice web service. C. Generate changed receipt advice web service. D. Receive receipt confirmation web service.

57. Which three statements are true for an expense destination transfers that does NOT require a receipt at destination inventory organization? (VALIDADO) REFORZAR. A. There is no put away transaction in inventory since the item is expensed. B. The transfer order is considered received and delivered at the time of shipment. C. The destination inventory is not incremented. D. There is no cost associated to the transaction. E. A receipt is required on interorganization expense destination transfer orders between the from and to organizations.

58. What does the system do if you have not entered a count for a tag during physical inventory process?. A. You will not be able to post without a quantity for every tag. B. Any adjustment will be rejected. C. It will consider the current system quantity. D. It will adjust your on-hand balances down to zero quantity. E. A warehouse person will be notified.

59. Which three replenishment count types are used for Periodic Automated Replenishment (PAR)?. A. Order Quantity: Generates a replenishment request for the order quantity entered for the replenishment count. B. Reorder Point: Generates a replenishment request for the order quantity based on days of cover for the item lead time. C. Order PAR: Generates a replenishment requisition for the PAR-level quantity. D. Order Economic Order Quantity (EOQ): Generates a replenishment request for the calculated quantities based on inventory policies to maintain the PAR quantity. E. On-Hand Quantity: Generates a replenishment requisition for the difference between the on-hand quantity and the PAR-level quantity.

60. Your customer has defined three business units: two of them require the same set of receivables payment terms whereas the third needs a separate set of receivables payment terms. How will you achieve this requirement?. A. Define one reference data set and modify the business unit security. B. Define two reference data sets, assign the first set to the two business units which will share the same payment terms and second set to the business unit which needs separate payment terms. C. Define one data set with common payment terms and exclude the payment terms feature from the third business unit. D. Define three reference data sets and assign each data set to each business unit.

61. Your customer has two warehouses (Inventory organizations) located in two different regions. They have a consigned agreement in place with the supplier. Your customer requests that whenever consumption advice is created, it should be created separately for each inventory organization. What setup is required to achieve this requirement?. A. This cannot be achieved because only one common consumption advice is created regardless of other parameters. B. Set Consumption Advice Summary in Consignment Agreement to "All Organizations with items". C. Set Consumption Advice Summary in Consignment Agreement to "Organization". D. Set Consumption Advice Summary in Consignment Agreement to "All Organizations".

62. You are a shop floor manager and you have received an order which is a back-to-back order in nature. You need to reserve 100 pieces of an item in order to finish your order. However there are only 50 pieces available for reservation. If you process this request, how many pieces are provided as the fulfillment for the order?. A. 100 pieces. 50 from on-hand and 50 in the form of a purchase order. B. 0 pieces, because partial fulfillment of reservation not supported. C. 25 pieces, only half of the quantities can be reserved. D. 50 pieces, because full 100 quantities are at available.

63. During Cloud Inventory implementation your customer requires you to enable the Oracle Transactional Business Intelligence (OTBI) KPI to review the list of standard reports which is useful for their Current business scenario. When navigating to reports and analytics, the warehouse dashboard doesn't show any KPI watch list. Identify two causes. A. Supply Chain and Order Management Business Intelligence Analytics is not enabled. B. Logistics Business Intelligence Analytics is enabled. C. Organization is not enabled for warehousing. D. Data permissions for the organization being referenced are not set up. E. Logistics Business Intelligence Analytics is not implemented.

64. Which three are valid inventory transactions sourced from manufacturing? WIP: Work in Process (VALIDADO). A. WIP return. B. WIP Negative Material Issue. C. WIP Material Adjustment. D. WIP Material transfer. E. WIP Material Return.

65. Items are stored in multiple subinventories and you need to setup the default information for Miscellaneous Transaction. What are the required objects you must provide in the Manage Item Transaction Default window after choosing the organization? (VALIDADO: To define a default shipping and/or receiving subinventory for an item). A. Quantity, Transaction type, Subinventory. B. Item, Transaction type, Subinventory. C. Item, Transaction type, Quantity, Subinventory. D. Item, Locator, Transaction type.

66. Which of the following option is not available for consumption advice summary?. A. Organization. B. Organization and Subinventory. C. Organization and Item. D. All Organizations.

67. A user is performing a discrete manufacturing transaction, and it is calling the inventory transaction manager. The inventory transaction manager errors out. Which two things happen? (REFORZAR). A. The error message is made available to the user performing the transaction. B. The originating application can resubmit the transaction for processing. C. The error can be resubmitted only in the inventory interface tables. D. The error message remains in pending transactions. E. The error message remains in the inventory interface tables.

68. Your inventory manager has set up the following min-max planning attributes on the Manage Item Subinventories page for the Storage subinventory: Item: AS25125 Minimum Quantity: 10 Maximum Quantity: 100 Minimum Order Quantity: 10. Maximum Order Quantity: 50 Fixed Lot Multiple: 10 Which option indicates the appropriate movement request generated when there is zero on-hand for item AS25125 in Storage subinventory with reorder quantity 100?. A. two movement request lines generated with requested quantity of 50 each. B. one movement request line generated with requested quantity of 50. C. two movement request lines generated with requested quantity of 100 each. D. one movement request line generated with requested quantity of 100.

69. In the supply deviations overview, the status of a supply line is "Jeopardy" What does this mean? (VALIDADO). A. The supply is expected on time. B. The supply is not available. C. The supply is available after the due date. D. The supply quantity was revised by the supplier.

70. Which statement is NOT correct about your supply chain orchestration system?. A. Transfer order data can be uploaded to create a supply request. B. The Schedule process can be defined to process supply request. C. By default, a transfer order is created for any requested transfer. D. By default, a transfer order is routed through Order Management.

71. Which two options constitute the rights and responsibilities of a Legal Entity? (VALIDADO). A. Repair assets. B. Manage warehouses. C. Repay debts. D. Make purchases. E. Manage suppliers.

72. Identify three statements that are true about inventory reservations. A. After an on-hand supply has been issued against a specified demand, the same material can be issued against another demand. B. If you reduce the quantity of material in or cancel a purchase order that is reserved against a demand, the corresponding reservation is modified or canceled. C. If you cancel a transfer order return that is reserved against a demand, the corresponding reservation is canceled. D. If you reduce the quantity of material in or cancel a work order that is reserved against a demand, the corresponding reservation cannot be modified or canceled. E. If you reduce the quantity of material in or cancel a transfer order that is reserved against a demand, the corresponding reservation is modified or canceled. F. If you reduce the quantity of material in or cancel a requisition that is reserved against a demand, the corresponding reservation cannot be modified or canceled.

73. Your customer has decided to implement Oracle Fusion. They have two manufacturing facilities, one located in Germany and one located in Spain (both using Euros for currency). Both the facilities operate independently in compliance with their jurisdiction and legal requirements. The management of the organization however, wants to consolidate their financial reporting without custom reporting. Which structure supports this requirement?. A. One Enterprise, Two Legal Entities, One General Ledger. B. Two Enterprises, Two Legal Entities, Two General Ledger. C. One Enterprise, One Legal Entity, Two General Ledger. D. Two Enterprises, One Legal Entity, One General Ledger.

74. Which three setup objects are automatically created when you create inventory organization using quick setup?. A. Receiving parameters. B. Subinventory. C. Location. D. Manufacturing plant parameters. E. Interorganization parameters .

75. Which of the statement is NOT correct about legal entity relationship?. A. Your business unit has the ability to process transactions ow behalf of many legal entities. B. You can file financial statements for your legal entities through ledgers. C. Your Oracle Fusion Procurement application derives legal entity information from divisions. D. You can represent legal entity using balancing segment.

76. Identify two possible updates in a transfer order when your shipment line is not going through order management. (REFORZAR). A. Shipping priority update allowed before shipped quantity is recorded. B. Quantity decrease is allowed after a partial shipment. C. Requested delivery date update allowed after shipped quantity is recorded. D. Note to receiver update allowed after shipped quantity is recorded.

77. Which action CANNOT be performed while you create Miscellaneous Transactions?. A. Search for on-hand. B. Enter requester details. C. Enter purchase order details. D. Submit for approval.

78. Which type miscellaneous issue does NOT utilize the Default the Subinventory and Locator on Miscellaneous Transactions functionality?. A. Account Issue. B. Account Alias Issue. C. User-Defined. D. Miscellaneous issue.

79. Identify a valid reason for a Collector being unable to enter a dispute against a particular transaction. A. The transaction is partially paid. B. The transaction date falls in closed periods. C. The invoice is not closed. D. The transaction is an invoice. E. The transaction type is not associated with credit memo type.

80. Identify three costing methods that are supported. A. Perpetual Average – FIFO. B. Standard Cost. C. Actual Average – FIFO. D. Perpetual Average.

81. Select three characteristics of the inventory organization. A. Require finance and accounting information on item. B. Finance and accounting on the item are done. C. Manage item quantity. D. No finance and accounting need at item.

82. A production Operator is executing a work order in your plant. After completing move transactions, he notices that he has performed some incorrect move operations, including incorrect scrap and reject transactions. He is required to perform a reverse transaction to correct the errors. The operations are not count point enable and not auto charged. Identify the four transactions to correct this situation. A. Reserve at an operation. B. Reserve from scrap to ready. C. Reserve from material issued to a work order. D. Reserve from reject to ready. E. Reverse sources charged to a work order. F. Reverse the product at the last operation.

83. M2 inventory organization is not allow negative balances. Your picking agent is unable to overpick item AS45867 in M2 inventory organization under OPS Subinventory during pick confirmation. Which are two reasons for this behavior?. A. Overpicking is not supported for work order demand types. B. Sufficient on hand of item AS45867 is not available in OPS subinventory under M2 inventory organization. C. M2 inventory organization is not enable for overpicking. D. ITEM AS45867 is not enable for overpicking.

84. Which task can be used to transfer material across different projects?. A. Transfer supply. B. Manage Reservations. C. Create Project Transfer. D. Transfer Reservations.

85. Witch two ways can be used to initiate shipment request between Oracle Fusion Inventory Management and External Systems. A. Voluntarily initiate shipment request service from external systems. B. Automated schedule process Generate Shipment Request. C. Automated schedule process Perform Shipment Transactions. D. Use Manage Shipping Transaction Corrections Task.

86. Which two configurations are required to allow your warehouse manager to create unordered receipts?. A. Enable unordered receipts in the inventory organization parameter. B. Allow unordered receipts in the receiving parameter of the warehouse. C. Allow unordered receipts in the item specification. D. Enable unordered receipts in profile options.

87. Against a Purchase Order quantity of 100, your receiving agent has received 50 items in the receiving type subinventory. Later in the day, 25 items have been put away to inventory. What is the item availability in the Manage Item Quantity UI?. A. On-Hand: 25, Receiving: 25, Inbound: 50. B. On-Hand: 25, Receiving: 25, Inbound: 0. C. On-Hand: 50, Receiving: 50, Inbound: 0. D. On-Hand: 25, Receiving: 50, Inbound: 50.

88. Which two enterprise structures can be used to build the management structure of an organization in Oracle Fusion Applications?. A. Department. B. Cost Center. C. Division. D. Business Unit. E. Legal Entity.

89. Which two parameters affect the changes you can perform on an interorganization transfer order?. A. Destination type. B. User performing change. C. Receipt routing. D. Supply source.

90. Your customer has decided to implement project-driven supply chain for inventory management. Which two configurations are required to achieve this?. A. Enable the inventory organization for the project. B. Classify the inventory organization as a project expenditure organization. C. Enable transaction types for the project. D. Classify the inventory organization and subinventories as project expenditure organizations.

91. What are two ways to create an ownership change for consigned goods from supplier to buyer?. A. Perform a subinventory transfer. B. Create a transfer to an owned transaction. C. Set an aging onset point and aging period days. D. Create a transfer to a consigned transaction. E. Create a consumption advice.

92. What happens when you accrue at receipt in receipt accounting?. A. Less timely accounting takes place. B. Expenses and payables are booked when a supplier invoice is processed. C. Accrual and expense are booked upon receipt. D. Less accounting and reconciliation take place.

93. Your warehouse manager is unable to find the transfer order in the return receipt task. What could be the reason for this?. A. Only requestors can create returns. B. The transfer is between organizations. C. The transfer is to an inventory destination. D. The transfer type is Direct.

94. Item AS56001 has 10 on-hand quantities. In the Item Availability window, Available to Transact is equal to On-Hand Quantity. However, Available to Reserve is 0 and no reservations exist for this item. What could be two reasons why Available to Reserve is 0?. A. Pending transactions exist for this item. B. The inventory organization is not allowing reservations. C. The item lot material status is not allowing reservations. D. The item is lot-controlled and the lot has expired.

95. Your quality department wants to return some of the items to the supplier. However, you are unable to find the corresponding purchase orders to create the return. What could be the reason for this?. A. Receipt Close Point is set to Delivered. B. The receipt includes consigned items. C. Receipt Routing is set to Direct Delivery. D. The purchase order is in Finally Closed status.

96. What happens when you enable the Release Approved Lines option while running the Print Movement Request Pick Slip Report?. A. All movement request lines are available for manual pick. B. Manual pick confirm is not necessary. C. Unapproved movement request lines are available for manual pick. D. Manual pick is not necessary.

97. Your customer wants to implement locator control for a few subinventories in an inventory organization. Which configuration will help you achieve this?. A. Enable the Locator Required check box while creating subinventories. B. This cannot be achieved. C. Enable appropriate subinventories under the Manage Locator task. D. Set the locator control parameter in the inventory organization.

98. What is the role of a division in an enterprise structure?. A. It makes purchases and incurs expenses. B. It defines the destination of an expense. C. It owns the assets of the enterprise. D. It represents the primary organizing principle of an enterprise.

99. Which three sort criteria are available to pick material for a movement request?. A. Lot. B. Revision. C. Subinventory. D. Serial.

100. What happens when a new business unit is created by using the Create Business Unit task?. A. All business functions are assigned to it. B. None of the roles or users will have access to it. C. All roles are assigned to it. D. All users are assigned to it.

101. What are the configurations required in manufacturing to enable back-to-back fulfillment using make orders?. A. Set the sourcing rule to Local with the Make At source type. B. Set the sourcing rule to Global with the Make At source type. C. Enable back-to-back fulfillment in plant parameters. D. Create a work definition for a back-to-back item.

102. Your customer wants to reserve material for a future project. There is no existing demand document for this purpose. What can be done to achieve this?. A. Create a reservation using the project number. B. Create a reservation using a miscellaneous transaction. C. Create a reservation using user-defined demand. D. This is not possible. Reservations can only be created for existing demand.

103. Which interface tables should be populated to import inventory transactions using the FBDI template?. A. CST_I_INCOMING_TXN_COSTS and INV_TRANSACTIONS_INTERFACE. B. INV_LPN_INTERFACE and INV_TRANSACTIONS_INTERFACE. C. INV_RESERVATIONS_INTERFACE and INV_TRANSACTIONS_INTERFACE. D. INV_BALANCE_TXNS_INT and INV_TRANSACTIONS_INTERFACE.

104. Which statement is true regarding WIP inventory transactions?. A. Errors can be resolved in inventory. B. Errors need to be resolved in the discrete manufacturing application. C. Only successful transactions are interfaced from manufacturing to inventory. D. Errors can be resolved in either the manufacturing or inventory application.

105. What does order promising do when a sales order requested date is before the infinite availability time fence definition?. A. Does a supply chain search. B. Promises on the requested date and checks availability. C. Promises on the requested date and doesn’t check availability. D. Looks for on-hand supply.

106. Which three statements are true regarding material status control?. A. The transaction type for which you enable status control defaults as disallowed transaction type for new material statuses that you create. B. If you do not enable material status control for a transaction type, the transaction type is always disallowed. C. The Material Status Enforced profile option must be set to Yes to enable material status control. D. The default lot status can be assigned to an item in item master. E. You can change the material status at the time the items are received.

107. InFusion Corporation has employees in India, Japan, and the US. The company wants all their employees to be able to request and receive goods and services. However, it wants the procurement of goods and supplier management to be centralized and consolidated from India. Which business functions must be assigned to each business unit to meet these requirements?. A. India BU, Japan BU, and US BU – Material Management, Requisitioning, Procurement. B. India BU – Receiving, Requisitioning, Procurement; Japan BU and US BU – Receiving, Requisitioning. C. India BU – Procurement; Japan BU and US BU – Receiving, Requisitioning. D. India BU, Japan BU, and US BU – Receiving, Requisitioning, Procurement.

108. Which two statements are true about inventory organizations?. A. Inventory organizations can be set up without subinventories. B. Locator control can be defined at the item level. C. Inventory organizations can be assigned appropriate material status. D. Locator control cannot be changed at the subinventory level.

109. Which two purposes can be met by using an item organization?. A. Sales catalog definition. B. Master organization definition. C. Financial tracking. D. Inventory tracking.

110. Which two statements are true about project-driven supply chain?. A. Project and task details are not available on the Manage Item Quantities page. B. Project and task details can be removed from a referenced return. C. Exclusion can be set for project cost collection by project type. D. Common inventory cannot be used for project-specific picks.

111. You are configuring business units for your customer and have defined two business units: Business Unit America and Business Unit Singapore. Based on discussions with the customer, you configured Business Unit Singapore as Procurement Service Providers in the Manage Service Providers: Business Unit America task. What is the role of Business Unit Singapore?. A. To process requisitions for Business Unit America. B. To process requisitions and supplier information for Business Unit America. C. To process procurement orders, payable invoices, billing, and revenue for Business Unit America. D. To process requisitions, supplier information, and payable invoices for Business Unit America.

112. Your consumption advice frequency is weekly and the billing cycle closing date is November 7, 2022. What happens when the Create Consumption Advice process is run on November 10, 2022?. A. No consumption advice is generated and the next closing date is set to November 17, 2022. B. A consumption advice is generated and the next closing date is set to November 14, 2022. C. No consumption advice is generated. D. The consumption advice is generated and the next closing date is set to November 17, 2022.

113. You created a consigned agreement with a supplier. The supplier shipped the goods, which you received in your receiving area. After two days, you transferred the goods from receiving into your inventory and used it for your interorganization transfer order. Where is the ownership of the goods?. A. The ownership changes from the supplier to the buyer as soon as the goods are received in the receiving area. B. The ownership is with the buyer due to interorganization consigned inventory movement. C. The ownership is with the supplier because the supplier has not sent the consumption advice. D. The ownership is with the supplier because the goods are not yet consumed. .

114. Where do Oracle Supply Chain applications derive their legal entity information from?. A. Ledger. B. Division. C. Business Unit. D. Department.

115. What happens when Transfer Order Required is not enabled in the Manage Interorganization Parameters page for Direct Organization Transfer?. A. Transfer orders cannot be created. B. Transfer orders can be created, but approval is mandatory. C. Transfer orders cannot be created only from inventory. D. Both interorganization transfers and transfer orders can be created.

116. Which two statements are true about enterprise structures?. A. A business unit can be assigned to multiple primary ledgers. B. Divisions and departments can be represented in the chart of accounts. C. An inventory organization can have more than one cost organization. D. Client business units can be part of other legal entities in a shared service center model.

117. Steve, your warehouse manager, created a lot for an item by mistake. He is unable to disable this lot from the Manage Lots task. What could be reason for this behavior?. A. Lot uniqueness control is active. B. The item is both lot- and serial-controlled. C. It is a parent lot and has child lots with pending transactions. D. The item has not reached the lot expiration date.

118. Goods need to be moved from Org A to Org B. The person at the warehouse in Org B must receive and move the shipment physically, and perform a quality check. Which is the appropriate transfer type and receipt routing required?. A. Expense Destination Transfer Type: In-Transit<br>Receipt Routing: Inspection. B. Expense Destination Transfer Type: Direct<br>Receipt Routing: Standard. C. Inventory Destination Transfer Type: Direct<br>Receipt Routing: Inspection. D. Inventory Destination Transfer Type: In-Transit<br>Receipt Routing: Inspection. E. Inventory Destination Transfer Type: Direct<br>Receipt Routing: Standard.

119. Inventory organization M1 has reorder quantity rounding enabled and has: Nettable Quantity On-Hand = 25 Open Supply Quantity = 51, with all supply within the supply cutoff date Open Reserved Sales Order Quantity = 90, with all the demand within the cutoff date Open Unreserved Sales Order Quantity = 10 Min-Max Minimum Quantity = 100 Min-Max Maximum Quantity = 500 The min-max planning report is run at the organization level with Yes specified for the Net Reserved Orders parameter. What will be the total available quantity and reorder quantity calculated?. A. Total available quantity = 76, Reorder quantity = 424. B. Total available quantity = - 14, Reorder quantity = 500. C. Total available quantity = 76, Reorder quantity = 420. D. Total available quantity = - 14, Reorder quantity = 514.

120. What are the inventory reservation levels available for an item?. A. Subinventory, Locator, Revision, Lot, and Serial only. B. Subinventory and Locator only. C. Subinventory, Locator, Revision, Lot, Serial, Project, and Task only. D. Subinventory, Locator, Lot, and Serial only.

121. Vision Corporation manufactures two products, Air Compressors and Air Filters, in its factory unit. It also provides two services, Electrical Services and Mechanical Services, for its customers. The company submits profit and loss statements for each of its products and services separately. Vision Corporation is located in the UK and submits its reports using UK Statements of Standard Accounting Practice and Financial Reporting standards. Which is a suitable enterprise configuration for Vision Corporation?. A. 2 Business Units, 1 Ledger, and 1 Legal Entity. B. 4 Business Units, 1 Ledger, and 1 Legal Entity. C. 1 Business Unit, 1 Ledger, and 1 Legal Entity. D. 4 Business Units, 4 Ledgers, and 4 Legal Entities.

122. Currently, the pick slip generated in your client system contains lines of multiple movement requests. The client wants a pick slip to be generated for each movement request. How can this requirement be achieved? Choose appropriate Movement Request Grouping on the Manage Inventory Organization Parameters page. A. Use the pick slip grouping rule that has Order Number as a grouping criterion. B. Disable Group By on the Create Movement Request page. C. Disable Group By in the Print Movement Request Pick Slip Report.

123. Which two actions are possible on an expired lot?. A. Include in cycle count. B. Include in physical inventory and tag entry. C. Consider as on-hand for min-max planning. D. Reserve for transactions.

124. Your customer operates in both the US and UK and wants financial reporting in two different financial reporting standards. How many primary ledgers should be set up to fulfill this requirement?. A. Define one ledger and use the reporting currency functionality. B. Define two ledgers, one for each legal entity. C. Define three ledgers, one for each legal entity and another for consolidation. D. Define one ledger by consolidating all the transactions.

125. Your customer wants to track and approve inventory transactions at two inventory organizations handling high value goods. What are the two types of inventory transactions recommended?. A. Interorganization transfer without using a requisition or transfer order. B. Requisitions and purchase orders. C. Movement request with a movement request issue transaction type. D. Subinventory transfer.

126. Your client has configured min-max planning for inventory replenishment and has not implemented Oracle Fusion Cloud Manufacturing and Supply Chain Materials Management. How do you ensure purchase requisitions are generated for inventory replenishment?. A. Run the Print Min-Max Planning Report and Requisition Import processes. B. This requirement cannot be achieved. C. Run the Print Min-Max Planning Report and Process Supply Chain Orchestration Interface processes. D. Requisitions will be automatically created when you run the Print Min-Max Planning Report.

127. What is the cost layer granularity available in cost accounting?. A. Item, lot, serial, subinventory, and grade only. B. Item, lot, serial, subinventory, locator, and grade. C. Item, lot, serial, and subinventory only. D. Item, lot, and serial only.

128. Items in Lot A have active material status, which allows all inventory transactions. Your subinventory, "Defective," is set with a material status that does not allow subinventory transfers. What will happen when the user performs a subinventory transfer from the "Defective" subinventory using Lot A items?. A. The subinventory transfer goes for approval. B. The subinventory transfer completes successfully. C. The subinventory transfer throws a warning. D. The subinventory transfer cannot be performed.

129. Your supplier is unable to deliver goods on the promise date against a back-to-back order and pushes out the promise date on the purchase order schedule. How is the change handled on the source side?. A. A date push out exception is generated in supply orchestration, and order management is notified. B. A date push out exception is generated in supply orchestration, and the schedule ship date is adjusted in order management. C. Status quo is maintained on the supply order and sales order. D. An alternative source of supply is searched, and order management is notified.

130. Where can you set up default stocking units of measure?. A. Organization level, Subinventory level, or both levels. B. Organization level. C. Organization level, Subinventory level, Locator level, or all levels. D. Subinventory level and Locator level.

131. What can your supplier invoices, created through spreadsheet upload for consigned inventory, be matched against?. A. Consignment order. B. Receipts. C. Consignment agreement. D. Consumption advice.

132. Item A is transacted in lots. Your customer wants to pick more than the requested quantity for Item A during pick slip confirmation. How can this requirement be achieved?. A. By default, confirm pick slip allows you to pick more than the requested quantity for lot-controlled items. B. You cannot pick more than the requested quantity during confirm pick slip. C. Enable overpick of Item A in the item specification. D. Allow overpick in inventory organization parameters.

133. Your customer maintains all their financial transactions in a legacy system and wants to implement Oracle Applications only for order fulfillment orchestration. Which two types of mandatory information are required to create a business unit for this purpose?. A. Location. B. Ledger. C. Legal Entity. D. Business Function. E. Default Set.

134. Your customer has decided to implement dual UOM tracking for an inventory organization. Which two statements are true about dual UOM tracking?. A. During transfers, the system honors UOM conversion at the source organization. B. The tracking UOM for the items should be set to Primary and Secondary. C. Dual UOM should be enabled for all items in an inventory organization. D. Generally, the secondary UOM is set as the pricing UOM.

135. When using the Create Interorganization Transfer process, you find that there is no option to generate or create a shipment number for a direct organization transfer. The Generate Shipment Number button is disabled/greyed out. What could be the reason for this behavior?. A. The interorganization parameter is not set up completely. B. The inventory organization is not enabled for shipment number generation. C. Shipment numbers are not generated for transfers using direct organization transfer. D. Shipping parameters are not set up completely.