11 nav light

Avionics domain on Network Server (NSS) is mainly served by data from (22.6). *C = is mainly served by data from "Avionics world" part of Network Server System (NSS). SADFSDF.

Electronic Flight Bag (EFB) is (22.2). *C = the way of flight deck information system which provides all information crew needs. SDFSDF.

How maintenance crew interfaces with ATIMS system? (22.8). *B = Via Multipurpose Control Display Unit(MCDU). dsf.

For safety reason IFE (21.3). *B = Master switch is located in the cockpit. SDFFSD.

Use of wireless system for passengers (21.2). *C = Is inhibited during take off and landing because of potential interference with other systems. sdfsdf.

The internal data transfer format for core-processor computers in IMA system is (20.8). *C = ARINC 653. sdfasdf.

Toilet flushing is performed by: (19.5). *C = manually. sdfsdf.

Which statement is correct regarding toilet vacuum waste system: (19.6). *A = Both answer are correct. B = The suction for flushing is made by electric vacuum blower below 1600 feet. C = Vacuum system works by the differential pressure between the cabin pressure and the outside pressure above 1600 feet.

Component which respond to brake pedal input by directing hydraulic fluid to brake is: (16.39). A = Brake control unit. B = Brake metering valve. * C = Both answers are correct.

Tires that are meant to be used without a tube inserted inside are known as: (16.51). A = Tube-type. *B = Both answer are correct. C = Tubeless.

The weeping wing system is a mean of: (15.16). *A = De-icing the wings and/ or empennage. asdffds.

An operational check of a de-ice boots system can be made by: (15.26). *A = Both answer are correct. ssdfds.

Hydraulic power is used for system like? (14.2). *A = Landing gear, brakes, nose wheel steering, Flight controls, Thrust reversers, Cargo doors, etc. sfsdf.

Priority valve gives: (14.22). *A = Priority to critical system when pressure in system is low. sdfsdf.

In a fuel system with interconnected vents: (13.3). *A = An expansion space is not required. sdfsdfsdf.

Fuel in normally stored in the: (13.4). *A = Central tank, wing tanks and surge tanks. sdfsdf.

The refueling in a transport jet aircrfat is made: (13.16). *A = Trough a unique refuel/defuel point. sdfsdf.

What are the minimum number of fire bottles in cabin with 201-300 people: (12.22). *B = 4 Fire extinguishers. sdfsfd.

The Fenwal system uses a ? (12.5). *A = Slender Inconel tube packed thermally sensitive eutectic salt and nickel wire center conductor. sdfsdf.

Continous loop fire detector systems operate on the principle that an increase in temperature produces (12.5). *B = a decrease in resistance. sdf.

A negative pressure relief valve will operate: (11.37). *A = When ambient pressure is higer than aircraft cabin pressure. sdfsdf.

Cabin differencial pressure is the: (11.32). *C = Is the difference in pressure between the inside and outside of the aircraft and is expressed in PSI. sadfdf.

Compressor part of air cycle machine (11.6). *A = Compresses the air and heats it. asdsdfa.

Vapor cycle air conditioning (11.11). *A = Only cools the airplane cabin. sdf.

The typical CMS system consists of (10.2). *C = CMC computer, data loader, printer, ECAM or EICAS display, data reporting transmission system only. asfsdf.

Class two faults are (10.4). *B = Caution level faults and shown during flight. sdfsdf.

CMS system data can be provided to ground ststion via (10.7). *A = ACARS or ATIMS systems. sdf.

Navigation light on Left wing is (9.2). *A = Red. sdfsfd.

Bourdon tube is used for (8.9). *A = high pressure difference and diaphragm as well for high pressure differences. sdfsdf.

The ball in turn and split indicator indicates (8.52). *B = whether the turn is coordinated or not. Ball stys between two banks in case of coordinated turn. sddsfdsf.

Precession is (8.50). *B = effect that occurs when the spin axis of a rotating body changes its direction by applying external force. asdf.

Uncorrected speed measured reltive to the surrounding air is called? (8.15). *B = TAS. sdfsfd.

Flight Data Acquisition Unit (FDAU) (8.66). *A = collects parameters from different sensor and directs it to Flight Data Recorder (FDR) and Quick Access recorder (QAR). asdfas.

What is the main disadvantage of the vacuum drive gyros? (8.50). *C = Contamination with dirt from the air passing throught the gyro. asdfasd.

How many modes are included in GPWS system? (8.54). *A = 7 modes. sdafsdf.

Indicating or advisory lights of older instruments system were (8.82). *C = green or blue colored. sdfv.

Sybchros use: *C = Airplane Information Management System. sdaffdsa.

Magnetic compass on aircraft suffers from magnetic deviation. this (8.61). *A = deviation is caused by big metals object in vicinity of the aircraft. sdfsdf.

Fly-by-wire signals control employs electrical that transmit the pilot's actions to a: (7.14). *A = Flight control computer. sdafsdf.

An artificial feel system is necesary in a powered flying control system to: (7.9). *A = Provide the pilot with simulated stick forces. sadf.

What is required for each seating class ? (6.4). *B = Emergency exit. asdf.

Typically passenger seat have: (6.4). *B = A leap belt only. asdf.

on aircraft batteries are charged by (5.39). *B = static inverter. asdf.

Primary electrical power on modern aircraft is (5.6). *A = combination of both. sdfsdf.

when GPU is connected to the aircraft (5.25). *B = it is not paralleled with the aircraft generator. sdf.

Why bus that connects battery to loads is usually called "Hot Battery Bus" ? (5.21). *B = Because it is always heated up and therefore hot. sdfsdf.

Generator Control Unit also controls: (5.14). *B = Both other answer are correct. sdf.

Static inverter main advantage against rotary inverter is (5.31). *C = that has no rotary parts. sdfsdfsdf.

Communication and Navigation Avionics computers are installed in (4.69). *A = equipment racks which have to be shock mounted. sdf.

DME starts to measure distance when: (4.57). *A = Search gate closes and DME starts with Track mode. sdf.

If the frequency increases (4.3). *C = wave length decreases. sdfsdf.

VOR system operates with the help of (4.43). *A = number of land based transmitter stations. zxc.

Location of the aircraft can be calculated with Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) (4.57). *C = and bring from VOR system. sdf.

Audio Integration System (AIS) (4.31). *C = controls all functions related to communications between pilot, copilot, observer, cabin and ground crew mambers. sdf.

High Frequency (HF) radio waves are (4.17). *C = have long waves and their travel lines follow the Earth's curvature. szdcsdfa.

All cockpit crew communications are recorder on Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) (4.23). *C = True, but only during the flight. sadfsdf.

ILS system consists of ? (4.49). *B = LOC, DME, VOR. sdfsdf.

Weather radar receives stronger signal from (4.72). *C = more dense precipitation. sdfsdf.

Flight Level Change Mode (FLCH) is one of (3.9). *A = verical modes of AP operation. sdfsdf.

Vertical speed mode (V/S) is one of the (3.9). *A = vertical modes of AP operation. sdfsdf.

Can pilot at any time switch off the AP activities? (3.89. *B = Yes, by pressing AP disengage witch on control column. sdfsdf.

One or more signal change the output of the system, but there is no feedback to control the system. this statement describes a (3.3). *B = Open loop system. sdfsdf.

Major zone 600 is (2.10). *B = Right wing. asfdasd.

Fuselage station numbers are measured from the front of the aircraft in: (2.8). *B = Inches. sdfsdf.

A modern large transport aircraft fuselage would be normally contructed from: (2.4). *B = Semi-monocoque structure. sdfsdf.

Cyclic control stick in helicopter control controls: (1.19). *B = Attitude and direction of flight. sdsdfsdf.

The speed of sound is approximately ? (1.12). *A = 761 mph. sdfsdf.

Elevons combine functions of both: (1.12). *C = Elevator and aileron. sdfsdf.

A split flap increases the lift by increasing (1.9). *C = The chamber of the wing and the increase of surface area. sdfsdf.

TCAS II provide: (4.70). *A = audible wearings and maneuvre instruction to help pilot to avoid danger with gentle maneuvre. sadf.

Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) (4.57). *B = measure the distance from the aircraft to the land located stations. sdf.

Analogue mobile phone system used (4.13). *A = frequency modulation. sdafsdaf.

When slinky spring is exanded and released (4.2). *B = longitudinal waves are created. sdfsedf.

Sound waves are classified as (4.6). *C = mechanical waves. sadfsdf.

Microwave Landing System (MLS) has (4.53). *C = many advantages against ILS system. sdfsdf.

Doppler naviagtion system (4.61). *C = is totally self containing system requires no ground stations. sdfsdf.

Multifunctional probe (MFP) joints (8.40). *A = Pitot tube, Anagle of Attack (AOA) sensor and Total Ait temperature (TAT) sensor. sdfsdf.

Some aircrfat potable water system are provided with air compressor pumps which automatically start when: (19.2). *C = The system pressure drops to a minimum. sDf.

How many detection loops is usually intalled on aircraft in each section of the detection area (12.6). *A = 2. sdfsdf.

What kind of loses do we have in transformers? (5.33). *B = "copper " and "iron " loses. sadfsdfdfs.

What is DC alternator usual outputs voltage? (5.20). *C = 14V or 25 V. sdfwse.

The reception of loop antennas is (4.23). *C = best when signal comes in direction of antenna plane. sdfsdf.

There are three marker beacons installed to help ILS system: (4.51). *B = outer marker iluminates blue light. sxdcv.

DME information is presented. *B = with digits, representing distance. sdf.

AP is controlling the YAW axis of the aircraft via (3.17). *C = combination of both. sd.

Yaw damper (3.17). *A = dampens slide-slip oscilations by directly controlling rudder. sdf.

Is yaw damper capable of compensating difference in thrust in case of one engine failure? (3.17). *B = Yes. asdfasdf.

A member designed to take mainly compressive loads is called a: (2.5). *B = Strut. sf.

Collective pitch stick in helicopter control controls: (1.18). *C = Attitude. sdfsdf.

Single rotor helicopter has: (1.14). *C = One horizontal and tail rotor. sdfsdf.

Directional control is provided: (1.6). *C = Rudder. sdfsdf.

ACARS system provides communication (18.4). *B = aircraft to ground for system fault data. sdf.

ADS as the data source provides data for (5.18). *A = flight plan and navigation data. sdf.

Navigation display (ND) can display navigation data in (19.8). *C = four different modes. sdf.

What is the percentage of the OXIGEN in the Air? (15.2). *C = 21%. sdfg.

When anti skid system switch is ON it works automatically and turns system off (13.60). *C = when aircradft speed has dropped aproximately to 20 mph. sdf.

A valve that requires one component to fully actuate before another can actuate is called (11.31). *A = priority valve. sdff.

For closing the vent line when fuel would enter the vent line there is (10.11). *A = Float valve installed. sdfsdf.

Active load control system (9.4). *C = protects aircraft structure during heavy maneuvers during flight (e.g. roll). sdf.

In case of detected fire on engine, action on FIRE button-handle performs the following (8.8). *B = shut down the engine and cut hydraulic, electric and pneumatic sources. dfg.

most AP system have additional to on/off switch (5.63). *A = a connect switch in control column. sdf.

VOR navigation system consists of (5.70). *C = thousands land based transmitter stations. sfghd.

Marker beacon in ILS system provides (5.77). *C = Distance from runway information. sdfsdf.

A comfortable (and normal) rate of cabin altitude climb for passengers is: (4.34). *A = from 300ft. per min to 500ft. per min. sdfsdf.

How is the air for air conditioning cooled in most jet aircraft ? (4.4). *A = by vapor cycle machines. sdf.

The air-conditioning pack of a present-day aircraft cosist of several components: these include two heat exchangers; the primary exchanger (P)and the secondary exchanger (S). the functions of these heat exchargers are as follows: (4.7). *A = P: warms up engine bleed air S: increases the temperature of air originating from the compressor pack. sdfg.

Buttock line or Butt line (BL) (2.4). *A = is a vertical reference plane from which measurament to the left and right can be made. sdfgsdf.

Metal fatigue is consequence of (2.7). *C = cycling force applied on structural part. sdf.

Horizontal stabilizer is designed to produce (1.6). *B = Downward force on the tail of the aircraft. sdf.

Slats are (1.12). *B = movable device mounted on the leading edge of the aircraft wing. sdfsd.

Wingtip vortices are largely decreased by use of (1.15). *C = winglets. asfd.

The wing anti-ice (WAI) system currently used for the most modern jet aeroplanes is the (12.10). *A = Pneumatic Hot air system. sdfsdf.

Pressurization sealing is mean to (3.2). *C = prevent air leakage from the aircraft to ambient air. sdfa.

Hot air for engine inlet cowl anti-icing is provided: (15.12). *A ) = from HPC stage (etapa de alta del compresor). asdaf.

Bleed air High Pressure Valve opens at iddle. And closes when the throttle position is fwd. si. no.

Autobrakes system for acomodation of more confortable braking. 3 LEVELS: LOW (the normal use) - MIDDLE - HIGHT. Anti-sid and autobrake systems are in series if one loses the other system loses too. both true.

Drag strut is always. on direction of the movement of the airplane. vale.

Zones never be spray with anti-ice fluid: pitot static probes, engine intakes, brakes y apu intakes. asdfg.

pop up indicator in hydraulic filters only reset. one time. two times.

Color hydraulic system is. violet. sdfasdf.

High Freuency (HF) communication on aircraft is provided (4.28). * B ) for long distance air-to air and air-to-ground communications. sdfasdf.

Large loads that needed about 50% of the electrical loads are (5.7). *B = galleys and electrical heaters. adfgadg.

Fuel system low pressure warning switch is located: (13.16). *A = At the outlet of each boost pump. sdfsfd.

A safety valve prevents: (11.37). *B = dangerous positive differential pressure and dangerous negative differential pressure. sdfsdf.

How many line select keys are there on the MCDU? (10.6). *A = there are total of 12 line select keys called 1L to 6L and 1R to 6R. sdf.

Current limiters for DC generators are (5.21). *A = High amperage fuses for isolation of buses if short circuits occurs. xdg.

The capacitance fuel contents system works on the principle of: (13.11). *A ) Capacitance. sdf.

Whether the fire ext. bottle in waste container is full or empty (12.19). *C ) can be seen on pressure gauge installed on the bottle itself or weighting of the bottle. SDFSDF.

A Ram-air-turbine is usually deployed: (14.16). *C ) Automatically deploys when the main hydraulic pressure system fails and/or electrical system malfunction occurs. sdfg.

A shuttle valve is used for : (14.22). *A ) To isolate the normal system from an alternate or emergency system. sdf.

Which statement is correct? (18.10). *B ) Both answers are correct. (Pneumatic manifold pressure is a key parameter monitored on the flight deck.). (Engine bleed pneumatic system temperature is monitored.).

Weight on wheels (WOW) integrated circuit logic cards communicate air-ground status information with other systems through: (16.13). *C ) Digital data bus. sdf.

When ice collects on an ice detector probe, the established frequency of vibration: (15.3). *A ) Decrease. sdfg.

What is the basic part of the electronic ice-detector? (15.3). *A ) Vibrating probe-tip. sfsef.

A suitable leak detecting solution for use on oxygen systems is: (17.18). *B ) Oxygen-safe leak check fluid. sdf.

Wheel fusible plug: (16.22). *A ) Melts due to overheat. sdf.

Air Traffic Information Management System (ATIMS) (22.8). *A ) provides swift transfer of data via data link between airplane and ground stations. sdfsdf.

FLIR stands for (21.8). *C ) Forward Looking Infra Red cameras. sdf.

Waste water from the toilet sinks and galleys is drained: (19.4). *A ) Overboard thought a heated drain mast. sdf.

Maintenance Information System provides (22.2). *C ) ...Information to maintenance crew such as AMM, IPC, SRM, wiring diagrams, service bulletins. sedf.

What happens when APU fire bottle is overheated (12.14). *A ) the gas is thermally discharged and RED disc is ejected. sdfgsdf.

Which of the following portable, hand held fire extinguishers are suitable as cabin or cockpit equipment: (12.23). *A ) Halon 1211. wesfadsfg.

Pressure of fire ext.bottle in waste container (12.19). *C ) can be checked on pressure indicator installed on extinguisher bottle itself or by weighing of the bottle. asdfasdf.

How is the air for air conditioning cooled in piston engine powered aircraft? (11.4). *B) By vapor cycle machine. adsfgadsfg.

Which statement is correct? (10.6). *B ) Multi functional Control Display Unit (MCDU) is used to enter into CMS system. Current faults on MCDU are important to be solved before dispatch. dsfgsdfg.

Air cycle system is often called as: (11.4). *C ) Both answers are correct. (air conditioning package or PACK).

Thermocouple measures (8.36). *A ) the difference of voltage between cold and hot junction always connected on COLD junction. SDfsdf.

What is considered as a stand turn? (8.52). *B = Three degrees per second is standard turn, because in two minutes aircraft makes full turn. sdfasdf.

Compass and GPS indicator are (8.3). *C ) are classified as Navigation instruments. sfsdf.

Density is (8.5). *A ) weight per unit of Volume. sdf.

The indication is based on the measurement of the pressure difference between the pressure inside the diaphragm and the pressure inside the housing - outside the diaphragm. This instrument is? (8.16). *B) Altitude indicator. sdfgasdf.

Does temperature of the air changes the pressure reading on altimeters? (8.25). *C ) Yes, because air density changes. sdfasdf.

When piezoelectric device is exposed to a pressure (8.11). *A ) generates voltage. sdfsdf.

The information from Angle of Attack (AOA) sensor (8.79). *A ) goes to Air Data Computer (ADC). sdrgsdfg.

Primary Flight Display (PFD) shows (8.70). *A ) attitude, air speed, altitude, heading, lights modes, vertical speed, ILS and TCAS data... ASDFASDF.

Temperature compensator in fuel quantity indication system of fuel tanks is (8.43). *B ) mounted on LOWEST point of fuel tank and compensates quantity indication with respect to fuel DENSITY. SDGFDASFG.

Electrical resistance thermometer is based on (8.34). *B ) change of electrical resistance of material simultaneously with temperature. saedfasdf.

One 1.013,2 hectoPascal equals to (8.4). *A ) 14,7 psi or 29,92"Hg. sdfsdf.

What is the advantage of fly-by-optics controls systems versus fly-by-wire? (7.15). *A ) Fly-by-optics networks are able to transfer data at higher speed than Fly-by-wire systems. sdf.

A yaw damper will apply rudder proportional to: (7.11). *B ) rate of yaw. xDfasdf.

Specifications for emergency equipment requirements on any given aircraft are found: (6.2). *A ) CS-25 (Certification standard 25). srsaedr.

Which is the correct device for transport (on cargo compartment) certain food, medical supplies, flora (such as flowers) which requires a stable low temperature? (6.8). *C ) Insulated Load Devices (ILD). asdfasdf.

Passengers seats on an airliner are installed by attachment into: (6.3). *B ) Seat track mounting tracks. wsdfasdf.

In case if the entire aircraft power buses fail: (6.3). *A) Emergency lightning is assured due to its own battery power. asdfasdf.

Cabin furnishings materials are tested for: (6.6). *A ) Flammability and smoke production. SADFASDF.

Lithium Ion batteries have (5.4). *A) greater capacity ass NiCd batteries. asdfsdfa.

Absolute pressure is (8.7). *B ) is pressure measured between system pressure and perfect vacuum. adrfg.

In a fly-by-wire control system, the function of linear variable displacement transducer is to: (7.14). *C ) Complete the loop and send feedback signals to the computer. asdfasdf.

AC constant speed drive systems are usually rated at (5.10). *B ) 200/115V AC, 3-phase, 400Hz. sdf.

What benefits were brought by IMA systems? (20.3). *A) Both other answers are correct. B (less weight, less space used, more reliable systems, more redundant systems with less components). C (less computers, less energy used, faster operation of systems and faster communication between systems.).

In IMA system input and output data components are (20.6). *B) integrated in IMA system. asdvf.

On lavatory water drain system, which statement regarding valve position is correct: (19.4). *B) In the ON (normal) position, the water inlet and outlet lines are open and the drain line is CLOSED. asdfgdasfg.

ARINC 629 is (20.7). *A) bi-directional data bus. sdfasdf.

Synchros use: *C) Airplane Information Management System. (AIMS). asdfasdf.

Transformer changes voltage (5.36). * A ) and current changes inversely proportionally to that change. asdfasdf.

Ultra High Frequency (UHF) and Very High Frequency (VHF) radio waves (4.18). *B ) are only capable of line-of-sight transmission and do not refract off of the ionosphere. addsgfadfg.

Radiowave is (4.2). *C = form of energy that is moved by wave motion. sfsdf.

Weather radar must not operate (4.72). *A ) in hangars and during re-fueling of the aircraft. sdfsdf.

Frequency around 100kHz is specified as (4.7). *A ) low frequency (LH). sdfsfsdf.

Inertia Reference System (IRS) (4.67). *C) calculates aircraft momentary position on basis of known starting point. sdfasdf.

Radio waves propagation speed is (4.6). *A) speed of light. sadfasdf.

Radio Altimeter effectively operate up to (4.75). *A) 2500 feet. asdffds.

Area Navigation (RNAV). *A) create phantom waypoint that make more straight path then following VOR stations. asdfgasdf.

Airspeed indicator measures (8.29). *B ) the pressure difference between static pressure measured by aircraft static system and dynamic pressure from pitot system. sdgfsdf.

In ILS system glide slope (G/S) provides (4.49). *C ) provides vertical navigation to the runway treshold point. sdfsdf.

There are three marker beacons installed to help ILS system: (4.51). *A) inner marker illuminates white light. asdfasdf.

Can Auto Throttle System (ATS) be engaged without Auto Pilot system engagement? (3.19). *C ) Yes. asdfasdfasd.

Thrust mode (THR mode) in Auto Throttle System (ATS) (3.19). *A ) Capture and hold maximum thrust on N1 limits for corresponding flight phase. SDFASDF.

Control system which is called close-loop control system acts: (3.3). *A ) Control signal is sent to operate a component then feed-back signal from component is received. sdfas.

Stringers are used in which of the following types of aircraft fuselage construction? (2.4). *C ) Semi-monocoque. asdfasdf.

Subsonic speed is the one (1.12). *A ) bellow 0.75 Mach. sdfsdafas.

How does the balance tab move? (1.8). *C ) In the opposite direction proportional to the control surface it is attached to. asdfasdfasdf.

A split flap increases the lift by increasing (1.9). *C ) The camber of the wing. adfg.

Data from Network Server System (NSS) (22.5). *C ) can freely run from "Open world" to "Avionics world" but not so freely the opposite direction. asdfasdf.

Maintenance information system is (22.3). *B ) The equivalent system to flight crew EFB system. asdfasdf.

The passenger Address ( PA) supplies ? (21.2). *A ) one way voice communication to do announcements from, the cockpit or from a cabin crew station to the passengers. adfasdf.

A turbine engined aircraft high pressure fuel feed system: (13.9). *C ) incorporates electrical boost pumps in the fuel tank to provide fuel to he engine. aeedfas.

Capacitance type probe of fuel quantity indication system (8.41). *C ) measures the fuel quantity on basis of level of capacitance between inner and outer probe plates. asdfasdf.

Display Management for switching between EICAS and EFIS displays is achieved by (8.75). *A ) three Display Management Computers (DMC). asdfasdf.

Do MACH speed and True Air Speed ALWAYS increase or decrease equivalently? (8.31). *A) No, because of difference in temperature of air. asDFASDF.

Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI) measures (8.28). *A ) the pressure difference between static pressure measured by aircraft static system and pressure in VSI indicator chamber. ASDFASDF.

Cargo loading system on some aircraft have possibility to accomodate: (6.8). *C ) cargo/baggage in special containers or pallets. aSDfasdfasd.

GPS and mobile phones operate on (4.8). *B ) Ultra High Frequencies (UHF) (1.6GHz). asdfasdf.

Auto Throttle System (ATS) (3.19). *A ) keeps control of engine thrust through hydro-mechanical fuel control system - HMU or HMC. asdfasdf.

Ultra sonic type of fuel quantity sensor is (8.43). *C ) measures the distance from sensor located in tip of the fuel tank to the level of the fuel in the tank. asdfafsd.

Hydraulic pressure reservoirs may be pressurized by (14.2). *B) bleed air taken from the compressor section of the engine or by hydraulic system pressure. sedf.

Amplification in autopilot servo system is needed to (3.3). *C ) for driving heavy loads. asdfasdf.

The cabin interphone system is used for ? (21.2). *A ) communication between all cabin crew stations or between the cockpit and the cabin crew stations. asdf.

Requirement for equipment location on the flight deck is on a basis criteria: (6.5). *B ) Whithin arm`s reach of the pilot while sitting. asdfas.

Semi automatic landing system (3.23). *A) follows ILS beams up until minimum height of system use (app. 100ft) when automatic landing system is disengaged. asdfasfd.

Which statement is most correct? (4.24). *C ) Air-ground communications are available in voice and data modes. asdfasdf.

Step-down transformer with ratio 5:1 and input voltage 100V with 80% efficiency gives (5.33). *C ) 16V in secondary winding. asdfadfs.

Two electronic LRUs are used to control the electrical power on large aircraft. (5.7). *C = Generator control unit (GCU) and Bus power control unit (BPCU). asdfgadsr.

There are two basic types of fuses: (5.39). *C ) fast acting and slow blow fuse. asdfasdf.

Generator Control Unit (GCU) controls (5.13). *A) alternator's output voltage and frequency. asdfgadfsg.

A generator is an electrical machine that (5.7). *B) Can provide AC or DC power. asdfadsf.

So called split bus system on large aircraft (5.21). *B ) allows both engine driven generators to power any given bus at the same time. asdfads.

Sound waves are (5.2). *C = mechanical waves. asdfafsd.

Stand-by or emergency bus powers (5.40). *A) only vital systems of the aircraft. asdfdfas.

Passenger cabin information system is (22.4). *A = used by cabin crew where they have all needed information with them - usually on the tablet. aSFASDFAFSD.

Using maintenance information system flight crew communicates with airline control centre via: (22.10). *C = data link control and display. SDFZG.

Network server system main function is to: (22.5). *A = host the onboard information system (OIS). ASFASDFFADS.

Antennas for conection with external satellite system are: (21.5). *A = installed on the top of the fuselage or in tail section. ASDFASDF.

Ground based networks provide: (21.5). *B = limited area coverage but works faster than satellite based networks wich provide larger area coverage. sdfgdasfg.

The potable water is delivered to the galleys and toilets by: (19.2). *B = pneumatic pressure. sfda.

Waste water drain mast are heated: (19.4). *C = electrically. asdffsda.

the aircraft water system stores and supplies potable water to? (19.2). *A = to the galleys and lavatories and also removes drain water (gray water) from the sinks. asdfafsdafsd.

Toilet can be serviced from: (19.6). *C = the toilet external service panel. asdfasdf.

A medium-pressure pneumatic pressure system has pressure: (18.7). *B = between 35-150 Psi. asdfgadsf.

The bleed air distribution system recieves bleed air from? (18.7). *C = the engines,or from APU,or from a LOW pressure air ground cart. szdaffadsf.

To ensure continued serviceability, oxigen cylinders must be periodically: (18.3). *B = hydroestatic tested. asedfasdf.

When oxygen is delivered only as the user inhales, it is known as a: (17.11). *C = demand flow. asdfasdf.

Torsion links on MLG and NLG (16.5). *C = assure fixed position of wheels- in parallel of longitudinal axis of the aircraft. gnfhchgf.

Regarding ANTI-SKID choose the correct statement: (16.44). *A = maximum braking efficient exist when the weels are decelerating at a maximum rate (but not skidding). sdrfg.

The upper chamber of oleo strut: (16.6). *B = is charged with nitrogen or air and lower with oil. asdfg.

What probes have a thermal electric anti-icing: (15.12). *A = both answer are correct. B = AOA probes, P2/T2 probe, pitot probes. C = ice detector, TAT probe.

Pneumatic de-ice boots on turbo fan engines get pneumatic air from: (15.21). *A = engine compressor bleed air system. asdf.

When should rain repellent be applied to winshield: (15.35). *B = when winshield is too wet. adrg.

De-icing systems assure : (15.5). *A = both other answers are correct. B = ice that has already been accumulated is removed from the surface. C = that ice can not be accumulated on the surface.

A hydraulic pump is a constant-displacement type if: (14.10). *C = It delivers a uniform rate of fluid flow. sadrfgsdfag.

A thermal relief valve: (14.19). *A = sense fluid temperature change. asdf.

Hydraulic relief valve opens at pre-determined pressure and discharge pressure from: (14.18). *C = pressure line to return line. htgc.

Check valve is used to prevent: (14.21). *C = fluid to flow in non-desired direction. ujkyg.

In a hydraulic braking system, an accumulator is precharged to 1200psi. When hydro pump provides system pressure of 3000psi the hydraulic pressure gauge which on accumulator shows (14.20). *C = 3000 psi. bnfc.

What is the unit which transforms hydraulic pressure into mechanical force: (14.22). *B = An actuating cylinder. ujkygkujgv.

Which statement is correct: (13.16). *C = defueling can be done by fuel truck suction pump or by using booster pump of the tank to be emptied. hgjfchgc.

An integral fuel tank is one that: (13.4). *C = Is formed within the structure of the aircraft. hkgjv.

Capacitance type of fuel indicating system measures fuel quantity by: (13.11). *C = changing the capacitance on the fuel probe. ukhf gukv.

How many portable extinguisher bottles shall be on board of aircraft which carries 150 passengers? (12.23). *A = 3. jghmvj.

On an aircraft provided with resistance and capacitance variation type fire detection loops, a fire alarms is initiated by a temperature increase directed (12.6). *C = at any isolated point of the loops or else generally on all the loops. kjy gb.

Which type of fire involves class "C": (12.2). *C = fires involving electrical energized equipment. khjygvhjgb.

Yellow disc ejection shows (12.15). *B = that crew has discharged fire bottle. sdfgdg.

In a KIDDE continuous loop fire detection as the temperature of the detector loop core increases, electrical resistance to the ground: (12.5). *B = decreases. sedfasd.

Fire extinguisher in cargo has (12.17). *B = two types of fire bottle-dump one (quick extinguishing) and other one (slower extinguishing). asdefsd.

A complete fire protection system on modern, and on many older aircraft includes a: (12.2). *C = detection, extinguishing system. adfsfasdf.

A red light flashing light on APU or engine fire switches signifies an (12.15). *A = engine fire warning. asdf.

On a normal discharge of fire extinguishing agent, which disc color should be ejected from the fuselage skin: (12.14). *A = yellow. asdfasd.

In optical smoke detector in cargo compartment when detects smoke (12.16). *A = more light comes to scatter detector. asdf.

Three elements are required for a fire: (12.2). *B = fuel, heat, oxigen. asdfasdf.

Cabin pressurization can be performed via different modes: (11.34) (4.34). *A = both answers are correct. B = isobaric mode. C = constant differential mode.

Which one is correct? (11.33). *A = cabin pressurization has to be a compromise between passenger comfort and structural design. afasdf.

Aircraft flown at high altitudes burns (11.31). *A = less fuel due to decreased drag due to lower density of the air. asdfsdfa.

How is the air conditioning cooled in most jet or fan powered aircraft? (11.6). *B = by air cycle machines. aewrdsdf.

Primary heat exchanger cools down the air (11.7). *B = before air enters compressors stage of ACM. asef.

On the ground, air supply into an air conditioning system can be from: (11.3). * B = Main engine bleed, APU, Ground Pneumatic Cart or Ground Conditioned Air Cart. sdfsdf.

Flight management system (FMS) uploads shall be made (10.9). *A = every 28 days can be on ground only. asdfsdfs.

How many faults can be stored on non-volatile memory of CMC computer? (10.3). *B = approximately 500. sdfsdf.

Class three faults are (10.4). *A = Advisory level faults and are not indicated during flight. aswef.

Emergency lights are usually poowered by (9.6). *C = DC battery bus. asef.

Flood and explosion-proof lights are parts of (9.5). *C = cargo compartment lights. DXFFGV.

What instrument are basic instrument connected to the pitot-static system? (8.16). *B = altimeter and air speed indicator. asedfs.

On smaller aircraft stall warning switch is located (8.78). *B = on wing leading edge. sdfs.

Permanent magnet turns towards (8.60). *A = earth's magnetic north pole. sfsdfdsf.

Red line on the IAS indicator indicate (8.16). *A = airspeed that may be never exceeded. sdfsdf.

If altitude increases and the airspeed remains constant, mach speed? (8.31). *B = increase. SADFASDF.

Cabin rate of climbs (8.23). *A = measures the rate at wich cabin altitude is climbing or descending. ASDFASDF.

Enhanced ground proximity warning system (EGPWS) (8.53). *C = alerts flight crew about obtacles ahead of the aircraft. ASDFGSDF.

Air speed indicator instrument (8.2). *A = is classified as flight instrument. SAdfasdf.

Which is the main computer of GPWS system? (8.54). *B = ground proximity warning computer (GPWC). asdfasdf.

Navigation display (ND) shows (8.71). *C = shows the requisite information to navigate the aircraft including heading, VOR, GPS and ILS guidance. asdfasdfs.

GPWS mode 3 provides (8.54). *B = warnings for significant altitude loss after take-off. sdafgsdgsdgf.

Where multi-function displays is located? (8.73). *B = it is lower one of EFIS or ECAM displays. sdffds.

Mean sea level (MSL) is (8.26). *A = an average value of sea level in regards the tides that are different on different positions of the earth. sddfssd.

Pressure switch indicates (8.11). *A = to high or to low pressure and tiggers off or on indication. afdasf.

So called combination recorders are (8.65). *A = combination of different navigation devices. adfsafsd.

Compass deviation is (8.60). *C = difference in angle between compass and magnetic north. asdfasdfdas.

Terrain awareness (TA) (8.59). *C= compares aircraft position and world-wide terrain map and triggers warning the flight crew in case of any terrain danger. asdfadsf.

Fly-by-wire main goals are: (7.14). *A = both answers are correct. B = to reduce the weight of the hydromechanical system. C = reduce maintenace cost and improve reliability.

In a fly-by-wire system what is the main purpuse of the cockpit controls devices? (7.14). *A = THE MOVEMENT ACHIEVED....INTO A COMPUTER PROGRAM. sdfafdass.

Flight control computer limit aircraft to: (7.14). *C = stall if a side stick is pulled fully back. asdfasdf.

In which mode of operation (push or pull) do flexible cables have strength? (7.7). *A = when being pulled. asdffasd.

How many portable "fire extinguiser" must be installed on a comercial aircraft, between 61 and 200 seats (6.2). *C = 3. asdfafd.

In case if the entire aircraft power buses fail: (6.3). *A = emergency lighthin is assured due to its own battery power. assdfasdfawesf.

When aircraft partial power generation is lost, which power source is first to be shed: (6.7). *B = Electric supply for IFE equipment. asdfasfd.

Black boxes that contains avionics computers are located: (6.5). *C= are positioned near the rear the fuselage. asdfasdf.

A C alternators (5.19). *B = actually, produces AC three phase electricity which is converted into DC by rectifier. asdxfgasdf.

In case that IDG was disconnected, reconnection is (5.13). *C = mechanical. asdffasd.

DC alternators are (5.19). *C = lighter and more efficient from DC generators and are usually installed on piston engine aircraft. adsffgadfsg.

DC power on modern aircraft is (5.14). *A = 28 V gained by TR from AC 115V/400Hz. adfafsdsdf.

Current limiters for DC generators are (5.22). *A = high amprerage fuses for insolation of buses if short circuits occurs. aadsfafdsfdsa.

On so called AC parallel power distribution system (5.25). *C = different AC generators many power the same bus but only if they are phase regulated. adfsafds.

For electrical power production APU has (5.12). *B = generator connected directly to gearbox. sdfafa.

The prupose of an inverter is to convert (5.29). *C = DC to AC. asdf.

Brushless alternators are use (5.9). *B = magnetic energy to transfer energy to and from rotor. ASDFASDFASDF.

How APU generator keeps 400 Hz frequency? (5.12). *B = APU speed control adjust engine RPM accordingly to keep output within limits. aSdfasdF.

In modern light aviation (5.20). *C = DC solid state alternator controls units (ACU) are used. sdfasdfasdf.

Circuit breakers are used (5.41). *B = In AC and DC system. asdfasdf.

How many AC generators are usually installed on large turbo fan twin engine aircraft (including emergency AC generator on RAT or IDG) (5.23). *A = Four. adfasdfasfd.

AC alternator produce (5.9). *C = three phase AC output with sin wave separation 120º. adfasfd.

Reconnection of the disconnected IDG during flight (5.13). *C = not possible. adfsfasd.

What statement is correct? (5.30). *C = Rotary inverters and static inverters convert DC to AC power. asdfasdfasd.

TCAS II system provides (4.70). *A = traffic advisory (TA) and resolution advisory (RA). ASDFASDF.

TCAS I system provides (4.70). *C = traffic advisory (TA) only. ASDFFAS.

Inertia reference system (IRS) initialization can be done (4.67). *A = on ground only. dfgdsf.

If aircraft wreckage are under water (4.42). *B = it can be found by signal from under water locator beacon (ULB). asdffasd.

Inductive field created by antenna is combined by (4.6). *A = electric and magnetic fields. asdffasd.

Global navigation satellite system (GNSS) (4.65). *B = vertical and horisontal precision is 1m. sfghsdfg.

Modulation is process of (4.8). *C = changing the wave characteristics in order to add in the information. sdfsdf.

LOC is? (4.48). *C = system that provides runway center line guidance to aircraft , but no glidescope information. sdfasdf.

If the frequency increases (4.3). *C = wave length decreases. sd.

Automatic directional finder (ADF) operates with the help of (4.46). *B = number of land based non-directional beacon (NDB). sdf.

INT/RAD switch on audio control panel (ACP) switches (4.34). *B = between inter-phone and boom-mask microphones. sdfsdf.

Global positioning system (GPS) (4.64). *B = 6 planes with 4 satellites in each plane. sdf.

There are three marker beacons installed to help ILS system: (4.51). *B = middle marker iluminates amber light. sdfsdf.

When a stone is thrown into the water (4.2). *B = transverse and longitudinal waves are created. sdff.

In flight management system (FMS) (4.63). *A = comunicates with thrust management system (TMS) and flight control system (FCS). dfsddf.

Radio altimeter is the primary height information source for (4.75). *A = decision height (DH). Sdfsedf.

Using phase modulation (PM) of the signal (4.16). *B = phase of the signal is changed and consequently frequently is changed. sdfsdf.

Flight data recorder (4.40). *B = records all system parameters for last 25 hours. dfsdfsdf.

ELT uses: (4.39). *C = 121.50 MHz frequency and 406 MHz. fssdfsd.

Very Low Frequency (VLF), Low Frequency (LF) and Medium Frequency (MF) have (4.17). *A =Very long waves and are suitable for long distance transmission. fgdhjfghj.

Arinc 629 can process (20.5). *B = Up to two million bits per second. sdf.

The cabin intherpone system is used for? (21.1). *A = Comumunictions between all cabin crew stations or between the cockpit and the cabin stations. sdf.

Open loop IMA systems partition enables (20.11). *C = Easier configuration of the system. sdffsf.

FPV- Flight Path Vector (3.5). *B = Shows where the aircfrat actually going and the sum all forces acting on the aircraft. sf.

ADI-Attitude director indicator (3.5). *B = Is an istrument which informs pilot about orinetation of the aircraft relative to the Earth's horizon. sdf.

SAS stands for (3.18). *A = Stability augmentation system as artificial feel and stabilization system on large helicopters. sdfv.

Failure of the normal maximum pressure differential control is allowed for by fitting: (11.37). *A = Safety relief valve. dsf.

Does Digital flight data recorder (DFDR) need flight data acquisition unit (FDAU) (8.66). *C = No, absolutely never, because it can process much more input signal than FDR. sdfdf.

Wing anti-ice system (WAI) uses hot air from the (15.7). *A = Compressor section of the engine. dsffs.

Windshield heating is applied on: (15.14). *C = Inside of the outher glass ply. sdffdsfd.

Spongy brakes are usually a result of: (16.38). *B = Air in the system (because maybe nitrogen air in accumulator passes to the other side and add to hyd fluid). fdsa.

Is the lenght of antenna important? (4.19). *C = Yes, long antennas recieved lower frequencies waves and short high frequencies waves. sdfsfd.

Inertia reference system (IRS) starting point determination is called (4.67). *B = Initialization. asdf.

Common core system (CCS) concept is (20.6). *A = Concept where all inputs go to one dual-computer and when processed go to different indicator,LRU's actuator where ever needed. sdfasdf.

The drain valve located at the botton of the potable water tank is: (19.4). *C = Manually operated and is located in the water service panel. sdfsdf.

Medium-pressure pneumatic system source is from: (18.7). *C = Compressor section of a turbine engine. sdfsdf.

NSS stands for (22.4). *B = Network server system. sdfsdf.

With IMA system, how many power supplies we need? (20.4). *C = Much less than on non IMA aircraft. sdfsfdsdf.

IMA system uses for indication of data (20.8). *C = All 6 flat displays in the cockpit. sdfsdf.

On nose wheel steering system which component alloy to act as shimmy dampers, keeping actuators under pressure: (16.14). *A= Steering actuating cylinder. sdfsdfdf.

The required typical galley power is: (6.7). *C = 115 VAC three phase. sdfsfd.

Microelectromechanical based attitude and directional system (MEMS) operates on bases of (8.48). *C = Vibration or oscillation of piezoelectric device. sdfffds.

An altimeter set on QRH pressure when aircraft is sitting on the runway will show (8.24). *C = The elevation of the runway above the seal level. sdfd.

A relay is an electrical device that will (5.17). *A = Allow one circuit control another. uiu.

VHF antennas are usually installed (4.26). *A = VHF1/3 to upper fuselage and VHF2 to the lower fuselage. uuu.

One AC generator can supply the whole aircraft networks (5.26). *B Yes, if the certains buses are conected. sdff.

Weather radar operates on (4.8). *C = Super High Frecuencies (SHF). gyukghjk.

Main advantage of the fly-by-optics is that: (7.15). *B = Eliminates electro magnetic interference. tuiktuoi.

Frequently bellcrancks are used for: (7.8). Change the direction of the movement. adf.

What action must be performed if a seat belt is not functional and can not be changed before flight? (6.4). *A = Be placared and not used. SDFF.

What does SEU stands for: (6.3). *A = Seat electronic unit. SFSDF.

Differential protection logic is part of the (5.15). *B = GCU. SDFDF.

IDG integrated (5.10). *A = CSD and generator. sdfsdf.

Check valve with restriction orifice (11.31). B) Is always installed on entry port of the actuator. sdfdfsd.

A AC voltage regulator is provided: (5.11). *C = In the main field winding to regulate generator output voltage for changing RPM and electrical demand. jkhkh.

Air trapped in shock strut fluid is bled by (13.17). C) Exercising the strut through its own range of motion – with slow motions. sdfsfdsfd.

When EAI anti-ice switch is set to AUTO (12.12). A) The system turns on when ice detector detects the ice conditions. sdf.

Wing termal de-icing may be (12.11). A) Tested on the ground for a specified time only. sdfdfssdf.

What is Hold Over Time (HOT) (12.30). B) Estimated time that de/anti icing fluid prevents formation of ice on critical surfaces. sdfafds.

Rain repellent systems (12.33). A) Should not be use on a dry windscreen. dfssdf.

Windscreens usually have (12.15). B) Two levels of heat. sdffsdsdf.

Hydraulic lines must be (11.8). C) Plugged or capped after disconnecting. asdf.

V-packing seals are (11.39). C) One way seals opened towards the pressure side. sdf.

Priority valve gives (11.33). C) Priority to critical systems when pressure in system is low. sdfsdffsd.

An unloading valve (11.27). A) Is needed when a constant displacement pump is used. xzc.

In a hydraulic braking system, an accumulator is precharged to 1200 psi. When hydro pump provides a system pressure of 3000 psi the hydraulic pressure gauge which i son accumulator shows (11.28). C) 3000 psi. sdsdf.

Power transfer unit is driven (11.26) (14.17). C) By PTU half, which acts as hydraulic motor. sdf.

Pressure relief valve is used to protect (11.2) (14.18). A/B) Hydraulic system from over pressure. sdfsdfsdf.

The pressure in modern hydraulic systems may be up to (11.2) (14.2). B) 5000 psi. sdfsdf.

The aircraft hydraulic system is designed to produce (11.16). A) High pressure and small flow. sdfsdfsdf.

Hydraulic reservoars are (11.15). A) pre-charged at cca. 50psi. sdsdf.

A hydraulic tank may be pressurised to ensure that (11.10). A) A positive head to fluid is maintained to the hydraulic pumps to prevent cavitation. sdfsdf.

An integral fuel tank is one that (10.3) or (13.4). C) Is formed within the structure of the aircraft. sdfsdfs.

Which statement is correct? (10.28). *C) Defueling can be done by fuel truck suction pump or by using booster pump of the tank to be emptied. sdsdf.

Fuel system low pressure warning switch is located? (10.27). B) At the outlet of each boost pump. sfdsd.

If fuel filter is blocked (10.25). *C) By-pass valve opens and allows undisturbed fuel flow around the filter. SDFSD.

During fueling the automatic fueling shut off valves will switch off the fuel supply system when (10.27). C) The fuel has reached a predetermined volume or mass. sedf.

Fuel vent system (10.12) or (13.8). A/C) Must assure fuel tanks are vented at any aircraft attitude. BNGVHGV.

On an aircraft provided with resistance and capacitance variation type fire detection loops, a fire alarm is initiated a temperature increase detected (8.6). C) At any point of the loop. dssdffsd.

Engine supply pumps are (10.11). *C) Mounted in pairs each pump with its own NRV. sfddff.

Battery is protected against overheating (6.6). *B) by Temperature sensor. sdfsdf.

Thermocouple temperature indicator (5.40). *B) Is the connection of two unlike metals connected in two separate junctions. sdfsdf.

On a very cold day aircraft performs as though it is at (5.22). *C) lower altitudes. dssdfsdfsdf.

ADC as the data source provides data for (5.18). *B) Air speed and altitude. sdf.

Which instrument use pitot static system? (5. 14). *B = Airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator, altimeter. sdf.

Vapor cycle air conditioning (4.8). *C) only cools the airplane cabin. sdfsdfsdf.

A ram air fan operates on (4.7). *B) On the ground and in the air. sdfsdff.

Air conditioning system safety devices consist of: (4.39). *A) Over temperature and over pressure sensors. sdfsdf.

Which indications are related to cabin pressurisation (4.38). *A) Cabin altitude, cabin rate of climb and cabin differential pressure indicator. sedfsdf.

Cabin pressure safety valves (4.37). *C) open when maximum design cabin pressure is reached - usually between 8 and 10 psi cabin pressure. sdfsdffsd.

Cabin differential pressure is the (4.32). *C) Is the difference in pressure between the inside and outside of the aircraft. sddfsfds.

Air flowing through the throat of a venturi, experiences an (4.2). *A) lncrease in speed and a static pressure reduction. adfsasdffadsafsd.

compressor of the air (4.2). *C) raises its temperature. sdf.

Bleed air from the engine comes from (4.2). *C) compressor stages. SASDF.

Firewall is incorporated into nacelles to (3.20). *C) to isolate the engine compartment from the rest of the aircraft. sdfsdfsfd.

Passenger cabin door are (3.6). *A) plug type of the door. sdfdsf.

Bulkhead is (3.3). *C) primary structural part that separates pressurised and non-pressurised areas. dsfsdf.

Pressurized areas of the commercial aircraft are (3.2). *A) Cockpit, cabin, cargo, avionics compartment. sdfsdf.

Structure related techniques can be found in (2.17). *A) ATA51. sdfsdf.

In flight the wing of an aircraft containing fuel is subject to vertical loads that produce a bending moment which is (2.6). *B) Highest at the wing root. sdfgasdfasdf.

Slots are (1 .12). *A) Fixed device mounted on the leading edge of the aircraft wing. ddfsdfs.

The purpose of an inverter is to convert (6.29). *A) DC to AC. sdfsdf.

What is the difference between fuse and circuit breaker? (6.41). *B) Fuse can not be reset while circuit breaker can be. sdfs.

Evacuation slides shall after installation be armed (7.3). *B) in order to be properly automatically activated when needed. sdfsfd.

Position of PSUs shall be adjusted! (7.4). *B) Yes, to the position of passenger seats. DFSSDF.

AII galleys and stowage in the aircraft must be tested (7.5). *A) for loads and flammability. SDFSDF.

Continuous loop fire detector systems operate on the principie that an increase in temperature produces (8.5) (12.5). *B) a decrease in resistance. SDFSDF.

How are the engines isolated in case of fire? (8.15). *C) by closing the shut-off valves in the fuel feed manifold. sdfsdffsd.

The APU or ENGINE fire bottle are manually discharged with (8.14). *B) explosive cartridge. sdfsdf.

Which type of fire ext. gas is normally used on aircraft (8.19). (R) Halon. sdfsdffsdfds.

If smoke detector in lavatory triggers - does cockpit crew gets the warning? (8.19). (R). No, just flight attendants get it. sdfsedf.

Can you visually check the pressure in fire bottles? (8.22). *B) Yes, you have pressure gauge installed for that purpose. sdfsfd.

Control column has an effect on movement of (9.2). *A) Elevators and ailerons. sdfsdf.

In a manual flying control system the control inputs to the primary control surfaces (9.6). *C) are reversible and instinctive for the movement required. dssdf.

With hydraulically operated flight controls, feedback (feel) to the pilot is achieved by (9.13). *B) artificial feel unit. sdfsdf.

Rudder travel limiter (9.14). *A) limits the rudder range at higher speeds on max 7°. sdfsdfsedf.

What are possible take off warning conditions? (9.18). *B) lmproper position of flaps and slats. sfsdf.

The cross-feed fuel system enables (10.10). *B) the supply of any jet engine from any fuel tank. sdfsfd.

The refueling in a transport jet aircraft is made (10.11). *C) Through a unique refuel/defuel point. sdff.

Fuel lines are (10.14). *B) Usually made of aluminum, but on engines and wheel wells is are made from stainless steel. asdfasdf.

An ejector pump (10.19). *A) uses motion pressure of boost pump fuel flow through venturi tube to draw fuel. asdasd.

Capacitance type of fuel indicating system measures fuel quantity by (10.21). *C) changing the capacitance on the fuel probe. sdfsfd.

A ground cable around refuel/defuel point shall be connected to the aircraft (10.28). *C) before fuel cap is opened. sdsdff.

Four fuel leak classification from minor to major are: (10.31). *A) Stain, seep, heavy seep and running leak. sfsdfds.

Hydraulic relief valve opens at pre-determined pressure and discharge pressure from (11.26). *C) pressure line to return line. sdfsdf.

Orifice type check valve allows (11.31). *C) unrestricted flow in one direction and restricted flow to the other direction. xvcxcvvc.

In hydro system (11.31). *C) Sequence valve will define the sequence of hydraulic components movement. sdfsdffsdd.

Hydraulic fuse (11.34). *B) detects sudden hi flow of hydro fluid and closes the part of hydraulic system from the rest. sdffsdsdfdfsdsf.

Wing anti-icing pneumatic systems on left wing can be provided from (12.10). *C) both engines and APU. dasdfsdf.

An anti-icing system (12.4). *B) Prevents the formation of ice. sdfsdff.

What kind of ice protection do we have on engine intake (12.6). *C) Anti -ice protection. sdffdssdf.

Duct leak and overheat protection serve for (12.13). *A) Structure protection. sdfsdfsdf.

Vibration type Ice detectors (12.3). *C) gives ice indication when change in probe vibration is detected. dfsdfs.

An oleo strut absorbs with air and oil the following impacts and shocks (13.10). *C) with air and oil in all cases (landing, taxing). xcv.

Which of the following best describes the advantages of a nose-wheel type undercarriage? (13.2). *B) The floor is horizontal and landing is easier. sdfsfds.

Assuming an under carriage where the doors need to open before the gear can retract, when UP is selected (13.20). *B) The green lights go out when the doors have opened and the gear down-lock has been removed. sdfgsdfs.

In a commercial transport aircraft the landing gear operating system is usually (13.5). *C) Hydraulically driven. sdfsfd.

Landing gear up and locked most usually have (13.20). *C) all lights out indication. sdfsdff.

To prevent an inadvertent landing gear retraction to the ground (13.22). *A) a mechanical or electrically operated latch is installed to lock level into the down when aircraft on ground. vvv.

Do flight attendants use EFB? (21.3). *A) No. sdsdffsd.

what documents are stored in EFB for mechanics? (21.3). -AMM, IPC, SBs, WDM (NO). -Charts, tables, maps (NO). *C) None of both other anwers is correct.

ROM stands for (21.2). *C) read-only-memory. sdffdssd.

EFB stands for (21.2). *B) Electronic flight bag. sdfdsf.

Wi-FI system is already available on the aircraft! (20.6). *C) True. sdfsfd.

“Fasten Seat Belts” light are (20.6). *B) Part of cabin monitoring system. sdfsdfdfs.

Satellite based network is used by aircraft (20.5). *C) External communication system. sdfsfdfddf.

The information about way how seat are configured in the cabin is (20.5). *B) Stored in cabin mass memory system. dssdfsdfsd.

ARINC 628 is (21.3). *A) Specially designed data bus for IFE. sdfsdf.

IFE stands for (20.2). *C) lnflight entertainment. sdffdsfd.

PA stands for (20.2). *A) Passenger Address. sdffsdfsd.

Navigation display (ND) shows (19.9). *C) VOR, heading, TCAS, DME, localizer, glideslope. sdfsfddff.

The main information necessary to monitor the electrical system is presented on (19.9). *C) MFD display. sdffsdsdf.

Primary flight display (PFD) display (19.8). *A) Aircraft pitch, roll attitude, altitude, airspeed, vertical speed. sdfsdf.

Components in IMA system contain (19.6). *C) input and output devices. sdfdfff.

With traditional avionics system each peace of information uses at least one wire. (19.4). *B) True. sdfsdf.

In IMA system many LRUs are replaced by modules! (19.3). *C) True. sdffsdfsd.

What is BITE (Build In Test Equipment)? (18.5). *C) BITE (Build In Test Equipment) is a specialized portion of the computers of the aircraft systems used to communicate with the CMC. sddfgvsadF.

Class 1 fault in MCDU system (18.4). *C) refer to MEL and are most serious faults and in many cases NO GO faults. SVXDF.

How many MCDUs are there on modern aircraft ? (18.3). *C) Usually 2 but on many aircraft also 3. sdfs.

On board maintenance systems (18.2). *A ) both other answer are correct (monitor aircraft for faults and record and store the fault data + provide information about faults to crew and maintenance staff). fffd.

On board maintenance systems has (18.2). *C) two redundant CMCs installed. One is in active and the other in stand-by mode. sddfssfd.

CMC stands for (18.2). *C) central maintenance computer. sdffsdsdf.

The vacuum lavatory system operates (17.6). *A) By electric vacuum blower below 16.000 feet. dfsdfdfsfsd.

Sink stoppers are spring loaded to (17.4). *B) CLOSED position in order to maintain the integrity of cabin pressurization. sdfsdf.

Waste water from the toilet sinks and galleys might be drained (17.4). *A) Exclusively directly in the atmosphere. sdf.

Each lavatory potable water system is equipped with a drain valve. When in ON position (17.4). *C) water inlet and outlet lines are open and drain is closed. sdsdf.

Which are the sources that can feed the medium pneumatic system? (16.7). *A) engines, APU, external HP source. sdfsdfsdf.

Overpressure and overtemperature in pneumatic system cause (16.11). *C) The system shutdown of affected part of the system. sdfsdfsdf.

Ozone converter (16.11). *C) Removes the ozone from the air in distributions lines. sfsdfsdf.

A substance which may never be used in vicinity or on parts of an oxygen installation is (15.21). *A) Grease. ddff.

PSUs with passenger oxygen generators open (15.15) (17.15). *C) automatically at the time of decompression or by pilot at any time. sdff.

The demand valve of diluter-demand type oxygen regulator in normal mode, operates when the (15.12). *B) user breathes in. asdfasdf.

Emergency lights are usually powered by (14.6). *A) DC battery bus. sdfsdf.

Flood and explosion-proof light are part of (14.5). *A) Cargo compartment light. sdfsdf.

Where are position/navigation light mounted on the A/C? (14.5). *B) On the tips of wing and on the top of vertical stabilizer. sdfsdf.

Navigation light on Right wing is (14.2). *C) Green. sdffsdfsd.

Chevron cuts in a tire are caused by (13.81). *A) Operation on grooved runway surfaces. sdfgasdfg.

On an aircraft landing gear, an under-inflated tyre (13.78). *B) will wear at the shoulders NOTE: (more dangerous under inflated than over inflated). sadfsdf.

Tyre pressure is measured while aircraft is with its weight is (13.77). *A) on ground or on jacks, but when on jacks you should add 4% pressure value. (Roman dice BELLOW 4% en el video review). sfsdf.

The tyre pressure should be checked when the air in the tire is (13.77). *B) at ambient temperature. sdfsdf.

Auto-brake system is switched off by (13.65). *C) auto brake switch or by applying rudder/brake pedals or aircraft slows beyond the pre-determined speed. sdfsdfs.

Auto-brake and anti-skid systems are hydraulically (13.65). *C) linked in series. sfdsf.

A touch down protections is built into (13.63). *A) anti-skid system. sdfsfdfsd.

Carbon brakes (13.50). *A) are lighter, take more heat energy and are more expensive than metal brakes. sdfsdfsdf.

In a multi-disc brake pack (13.45). *C) adjustment is not necessary, pads take up the relevant position when the brakes are released. sdfsdfsdf.

Wheels with disc type brake (13.41). *B) discs rotate with the wheel. sddfs.

Wheel fusible (melting) plug release the tire pressure when certain (13.33). *B) temperature limit is reached. sdfsdf.

Non-hydraulic shimmy damper (13.28). *B) contains rubber piston and no hydraulic fluid. sdfsdffsdd.

Multiplexing is (20.5). *C) The process of dividing different addresses at receiving end of data bus. sdafsdfd.

ARINC 629 data bus allows (19.7). *A) Transmission of data in both direction in the same data bus. sdfsdf.

Data bus ARINC 429 is (19.7). *A) Uni-directional data bus. dfdf.

Core system (19.5). *A) Uses core to gather (recopilar) different inputs and then send them to many different users (actuators,computers, indicators...). sdsdfdf.

Flight Crew OXYGEN System is refilled (15.7). *A) Can not be refilled, we just change the cylinder. sdfsdffsdfsd.

Supposing you noticed that a tyre had excess thread wear in the center, What would you asume? (13.78). *B) Over inflation. sdfsdfsdf.

The tyre is more heated up when (13.77). *C) Under inflated. sdfsdfsd.

The function of a fusible plug is to (13.37). *B) Protect the tyre against explosion due to excessive temperature. sdfsdfsdf.

Nose Wheel centering mechanism (13.21). *B) Locks nose wheels in parallel with longitudinal axis to enable retraction. dfsfsdfsdffds.

The upper chamber of oleo strut (13.10). *C) Is charged with nitrogen or air and lower chamber is charged with oil. sdfsdfsdf.

The weeping wing system is a means of (12.16). *C) De-icing the wings and/or empennage. sdfsdfsdf.

In transformer primary coil (5.32). *C = AC voltage wich creates magnetic field around it and in turn creates AC voltage in the second winding. dsfsdf.

If operational test of auto land system finds any anomalies (3.25). *C = Red warning light Autoland is triggered. sdfsdf.

Transceiver (4.20). *A = Can not transmit and receive signals at the same time. sfsdfsdfgs.

Which answer is most accurate? (4.9). *C = Transmitter modulate signal and receiver demodulates signal. sdfsdf.

Most dense precipitation in weather radar system are colored (4.72). *A = Red. sdffsdsfd.

TCAS initiates traffic advisory (TA) (4.71). *B = When aircraft is 35-48 sec away. sadfsdf.

Decision height (DH) is the altitude (3.23). *B = Where decision about either landing or go around must be brought. sdfsdf.

Go-around mode (GA) is used when (3.25). *C = When pilot doesn't have fulfilled visual references for landing at decision height (DH). sdfsdf.

Synchronization of AP control system is important (3.6). *A = For smooth transition from "disengaged"to "engaged" mode operation. sfsdf.

How go-around mode (GA) is selected? (3.25). A = With take off/go around switches or by placing throttles levers in go-around position. dfassdf.

The heading mode (HDG) is basic mode of (3.13). *C = Lateral mode of AP operation. sdfsdffsd.

What is the purpose of Yaw damping system? (3.17). *A = To dampen side-slip oscillation or dutch roll. sdfsdf.

Disengagement of the auto throttle system (ATS) is possible (3.19). *B = Automatically in case of loss needed conditions for automatic mode or manually by push button switches on throttles levers only. sdfsdf.

Open loop-control system can be converted into close-loop control system by (3.3). *A = Providing feed back channel. sdfsdf.

Yaw damper system is (3.17). *C = INDEPENDENT OF the rudder pedal movement. sdfsdf.

FMS - Flight management system (3.4). *C = Is the system where pilot can enter following information: flight plan, speed control, navigation control, etc. dv.

Major zone 100 is (2.10). *C = Lower half of fuselage. sdfsdfsdf.

Water line (WL) (2.8). *C = A horizontal plane from which measuraments to up and down can be made. asdfgsdafg.

A fuselage contruction where the skin carries all the loads is known as (2.4). *C = Monocoque. dsfdfsdsf.

Buttlock line (BL) is (2.8). *B = A veritcal plane from which measuraments to left and right can be made. saddasf.

The effect of overstressing a part or assembly to the point where a deformation takes place is called (2.2). *A = Strain. adfsasdfdfsd.

Tension is the stress of (2.2). *C = Elongating or stretch. sdsdffsd.

Throttle lever controls: (1.19). *A = Rpm. sdfsdf.

Antitorque pedals controls: (1.20). *B = Heading. dsfsdf.

Hypersonic speed is the one (1.12). *C = Above 5,0 Match. sdfsdfsdds.

Transonic speed is the one (1.12). *B = Between 0.75 Mach and 1.2 Mach. fdffsd.

The primary function of flap is: (1.9). *C = Provide greater lift and control at low speeds. dsfsdffsd.

An elevator controls the aircraft motion in (1.2). *A = Pitch. zsdfasdf.

A balanced tab (1.8). *B = Assist the pilot to move the controls. sdfsdfsdf.

Which primary flight control causes the aircraft to roll? (1.2). *B = Ailerons. sdfsdf.

Which component senses the actual movement of the flight controls surfaces (9.12). *A) position sensor or RVDTs. sdafdfs.

In a fuel flow system (10.10). *C) Fuel can be transferred from one fuel tank to the other using cross feed valve. sdfdfdf.

Baffles allow movement of the fuel to (10.7). *C) inboard side of the aircraft and prevent movement of fuel to outboard side. sdfsdf.

Baffles are fitted inside tanks to (10.7). *C) protects movement of the fuel form inner cells to outer cells. xcv.

Expansion space of the fuel tank shall be at least (10.4). *C) 2% of the tank volume. sdfsdf.

Each fuel tank shall have (10.2). *A) at least two vents arranged. fsdsdf.

What is static balanced flight control? (9.15). *C) It is flight control which remains stationary when supported in CG. sdfsdf.

Using gust loocks on flight controls (9.14). *C) will typically include use of warning tag "REMOVE BEFORE FLIGHT". sdfsdf.

Pitch trim motion of the aircraft is achieved by (9.10). *A) Trimming horizontal stabilizer with nose up nose down motion. asdsdfdsf.

Adjustable rod has an inspection hole (9.9). *B) to check for minimum screw penetration. dsfsdfsdf.

Greater number of wires in control cable makes cable (9.6). *B) more fleksible. Note that 7x7 cable has less wires than 7x19. sdffdssdf.

Flight spoilers act (9.5). *B) during the flight as lateral control (assisting ailerons) and lift dump devise, on ground as speed brakes. sdfsdfdf.

Trailing edge flaps when extended (9.5). *A) Increase lift on take-off, decrease speed at landing, increase drag on landing and increase wing surface area. sdfdfs.

Balance tab (9.4). *C) Is designed to move in the opposite direction of the primary flight control. dsfdsfsfd.

Which statement is correct (9.3). *B) ailerons control longitudinal axis, elevator controls lateral axis and rudder controls vertical axis. sdfgsgdf.

Roll trim is achieved by (9.2). *A) ailerons. sdfsdf.

Pneumatic continuous loop system detects (8.8). *A) change in pressure of helium gas inside the metal tube of sensor loop. sdfsdfdf.

How many detection loops is usually installed on the engine with dual loop congifuration in each section on the detection area (8.6). *A = 2. sdv.

Can you visually check the pressure in portable fire bottles installed in cabin? (8.22). *B) Yes, you have pressure gauge installed for that purpose. sdfasdf.

Pressure of fire ext. bottle in waste container (8.19). *C = has indication available for crew installed on bottle itself. asdasd.

In case of fire detected in toilets the fire is extinguished with (8.19). *B) manualy by cabin crew with portable bottle. sdf.

Fire extinguisher in cargo has (8.17). *B) two types of fire bottle - dump one(quick extinguishing) amd other one (slower extinguishing). sadfsda.

Class A cargo or baggage compartiment is the one(8.16). *C) is the most easy accessible during flight. sdfg.

The indication of the fire detection systems is performed by a (8.16). *C) warning light and continuous chime. SDAFASD.

In optical smoke detector in cargo compartiment when detects smoke (8.16). *A) more light comes to scatter detector. SDFSDF.

What would cause the green overboard discs to brake (8.15). *A) Opening of bottle(S) safety device. SDFSDF.

Fire extinguishing system.When you press the ENGINE FIRE push-button (8.15). *C) The engine is isolated from all supplies (bleed air, fuel, hydraulic, electricity). SDGVV.

A red light flashing light on APU or engine fire switches signifies an (8.15). *A) Engine fire warning. asdfasd.

Yellow disc ejection shows (8.15). *B) That crew has discharged fire bottle. sadfsdfa.

In case that fire ext. bottle is overheated (8.14). *A) the gas is termally discharged and red disc is ejected. sdfasdfafsd.

The most common extinguishing agent is gas turbine fire protection system is (8.12) (12.12). *A) Halon 1301 or 1211. sdfsdf.

Most of electronic equipment is located (7.5). *C) in avionics compartment below the cockpit. sdffsdfsd.

What items belong to emergency equipment on aircraft? (7.3). *A) Both other answers are correct. B = fire axes, emergency lights, escape rope, emergency doors. C = megaphones, flaslights, desfibrilators.

In case seat belt on passenger seat is inoperative (7.3). *C) seat shall not be used during the flight. sdafsdf.

Minimum number of fire extinguishers on board of large commercial aircraft is specified in (7.2). *B) CS-25. sdfsd.

Emergency equipment requirements for large commercial aircraft shall comply (7.2). *B) with CS-25. sdf.

What is the nominal AC voltage and frequency of primary electrical power? (6.6). *B) Three phase 115V/ 400 Hz. asdasd.

Emergency electrical and hydraulic power supplies can be supplied by (6.41). *A) A ram air turbine (RAT) / air driven generator (ADG) or batteries or APU generator. asdf.

Circuit Breakers are used (6.41). *A) In AC and DC system. asdfasdF.

Transformer has voltage step-up ratio of 4:1 10 volts and 4 amps are used in the primary to produce a magnetic field (6.34). *B) Secondary voltage and current are equal to 40 volts and 1amp. sdfsdf.

What statement is correct ?(6.30). *B) Rotary inverters and static inverters convert DC to AC power. asefadfs.

Can more AC generators be connected on the same bus at the same time? (6.26). *A) no, they can´t under any circunstancies. sdsdafasdf.

Inverters on aircraft (6.26). *C) can produce 26V AC and 115V AC. sdsadf.

When GPU is connected to the aircraft (6.25). *B = It is no paralleled with the aircraft generator. sdfasf.

The TR unit is used to (6.25). *B) to change AC to DC by means of transformer and rectifier. adfgafdg.

Differential voltage protection (6.15) (5.15). *A) doesn't allow GCU to connect generator on the bus. asdfg.

DC power on modern aircraft is (6.14). *B) 28 V gained by TR from AC 115V/400Hz. fd.

DC voltage in aircraft where AC power is primary is produced by (6.14). *C) TR unit. asdfasdf.

In case that IDG was disconnected, reconnection is (6.13). *B) mechanical. sdfsdf.

For electrical power production APU has (6.12). *C) generator connected directly to gearbox. sdfasdf.

CSD or IDG are cooled by (6.11). *B) Oil. afadsf.

IDG means combination of (6.10). *B) AC generator and CSD. sdf.

AC alternator to produce constant frecuency (6.10). *B) shall rotate with constant RPMs. sdafasdf.

APU start from the battery is possible (6.5). *B) yes, on ground and in the air. asdfafsd.

Each cell of a lead acid battery procedures (6.3). *C) A nominal 2 volts. sdfsdf.

ELT transmission time is minimum (4.37). *B) 24hours. dx.

GPWS (5.91). *A) aurally alerts proximity of terrain below the aircraft. asdfasdf.

Water separator in air condition system is located (4.7) (11.9). *A= after turbine section of ACM. sdfdsdf.

Secondary heat exchanger cools down the air (4.7). *C= before air enters turbine stage of ACM. dd.

Primary heat exchanger cools down the air (4.7). *B= before air enters compressor stage of ACM. dfsfsdf.

A Pack valve or Pressure Reducing Valve (PRV): (4.6). *C= Provides a lower than main pressure for particular systems. dfdsfsf.

Compressor part of air cycle machine (4.4). *A= Compresses the air and heats it. sdfa.

Radio altimeter measures (5.90). *A) distance between aircraft to the terrain directly beneath. sdf.

During a normal pressurised climb after take-off (4.32). *C= cabin pressure decreases slower than atmospheric pressure. dsfsdf.

Traffic Advisory (TA) (5.87). *C) assist pilots in visual adquisition of intruder aircraft. sdf.

A safety valve prevents: (4.39). *C Dangerous positive diff pressures. asdfsdf.

Instrument Landing system (ILS) (5.77). *C) is used in bad visibility conditions. sdfsdf.

On the ground the automatic mode of cabin pressurisation is (4.39). *B = normally not possible. asdfaf.

Localizer gives (5.77). *B) horizontal guidance to the center line of the runway. asdfasfd.

Overheating protection of the pneumatic lines is achieved by (4.39). *B= Overheating/fire loop detecting system. sdffsd.

For distances over 250 Nm (long distance) we use (5.68). *A) HF communication. adfs.

On touch-down of aircraft (4.39). *C = The WOW switches commands outflow valve to fully open. adfg.

VHF is used for communication between; (5.68). *B) aircraft and air traffic control. adfasf.

Cabin pressure controller controls the (4.34). *B = the position of outflow valve. sdfsfda.

Yaw damper actuator compensate (5.65). *C) Oscilations around longitudinal and vertical axis. k,jh.

Cabin pressure is controlled by (4.34). *C = delivering substantially constant flow of air into the cabin and controlling the outflow. sdrtgs.

The AP system can work completely independant from FD system (5.64). *A) yes. asdfafsdafds.

AP is controlling the ROLL axis of the aircraft via (5.62). *A) aileron servo. asdfasdf.

The Autopilot controls the aircraft attitude around (5.61). all 3 axes*A). sdfdfsf.

Most Autopilots have both manual and automatic mode of operation! (5.60). *C) True. sdf.

Which comparison is correct? (4.31). *B 1013,2 mbar equals to 14.7 psi equals to 29,92 inch Hg. fdasfasdfasd.

Magnetic compass shows (5.45). *A) direction of north magnetic pole. sdadad.

Which statement is correct (4.31). *C = Barometric pressure decreased by increased altitude and de-creased temperature. sdfsdffsddfs.

Why magnetic compass suffer of so called magnetic deviation? (5.45). *C = Because it aligns not only to magnetic pole of the hearth but also to other magnetic fields around it. sdfsdf.

Total Air Temperature (TAT) IS (5.44). *B) static air temperature plus any temperature rise caused by high speed movement. sdaffdas.

Atmospheric pressure is also known as (4.30). *A barometric pressure, because it is measured in inches of mercury,. sdffsdsdf.

On the ground the air conditioning supply can be provided (4.3). *C also from an external unit via low pressure port. sdfsfdsdf.

Electrical resistance thermometer uses (5.39). *A) the change of resistance in material caused by temperature change. sdfsdf.

What are the possible sources of supplied air? (4.2). *A Engine, APU and pneumatic ground cart. sdfdfssdf.

Instruments are basically clasified by the job they perform: (5.3). *A) Flight instruments, engine instruments and navigation instruments. sd.

What is disadvantage of jet pump flow multiplier? (4.2). *C You can pressurise only small volume. fsdsd.

Compression of the air (4.2). *C raises its temperature. sdffsdsdffsd.

Flight controls are attached to: (3.20). *C rear spar of the fixed structure. sdfsdf.

Which statement is correct? (5.3). *C) Direct sensing instrument system consists od sensor and indication in one unit. sdsdf.

Flight controls are mass balanced to: (3.20). *C Prevent flutter. sfsdf.

Synchro type instruments explot the consisten relationship between (5.28). *A) electricity and magnetism. sadas.

Maximum allowable speed of the aircraft defined during certification flight is called? (5.27). *B) Critical mach number. sdfsedf.

Flutter is an aerodynamic problem which is solved by (3.20). *A Affixing weights forward of a control surface hinge line and, therefore, providing mass balance to he control. sdfsdf.

Air speed indicator shows indicated speed by comparing (5.25). *B) ram air pressure and static air pressure. sdfsedf.

The pylon (3.19). *B extend the air frame structure allowing engine to be far enough from the other structure (because of the hot gases). sdsdf.

An aircraft altimeter is (5.17). *C) pressure measuring instrument. sdfsdf.

The empennage consist of the (3.18). *B Horizontal and vertical stabilizer. sdfsdffsd.

In the air cycle machine turbine stage (4.7). * A) warm and highly pressurized air expands and cools. sdf.

Top part of the spar is called (3.12). *C upper spar cap. sdfsdf.

Stringers are wing structural parts which run (3.10). *B in parallel with spars. sdfsdffsd.

Which part of the wing is the principal structural part (3.9). *C Forward and aft spar. sdfsdfsdf.

A typical air cycle air conditioning system consists of : (4.7). *B) At least one heat exchanger, but usually two. sdfsdf.

A wing structure consist primarily of (3.9). *B = A front and rear main spar with ribs and stringers. sdfsfd.

The heated window is (3.8). *B more resistant to impact breakage. sdfsdf.

Refrigeration bypass valve serves (4.7). *B) to control ACM turbine discharge air in order to prevent freezing on water separator. sdfsdf.

Cargo door are (3.6). *C non-plug type of door. dssdfa.

Pressurised areas of the comercial aircraft are (3.2). *A = cockpit, cabin, cargo, avionics compartment. sdffsdsdf.

There are plug and non-plug type of door on the aircraft. Where are installed plug type doors (3.5). *B In pressurised areas only. sdfsdf.

Pressurisation sealing is meant to (3.2). *C= prevent air leakage from the aircraft to ambient air. sdfsdfsfdsdf.

What is the purpose of bonding jumper? (2.9). *A To ground certain aircraft part to prevent different electrical charges along the aircraft structure. sdafsdf.

Why external drain should be heated? (2.8). *C To prevent icing of the drained fluid. asdadsads.

Strain is (2.7). *C the degree of the material deformation. sxdv.

What part of the airplane is marked with zone 100? (2.5). *A Lower half of fuselage. sdfsdf.

A load paths allow (2.3). *C = Safe distribution of stress in a structure so as to prevent focus at critical points. sdfsdf.

Damage tolerance concept in aircraft design (2.3). *A = ASSURES when structural accidental damage, corrosion or fatigue occur remaining structure can withstand reasonable loads. sdsdf.

An aircraft structure that is built with more than one path for the stresses so a crack will not destroy the structure is called (2.3). *C Fail-safe Design. sdf.

THE WINGS ARE NOT COVERED BY THE STATION NUMBERING SYSTEM (2.3). *B WRONG. sdfsdfsdf.

On anodized parts oxide film presents? (2.18). *A an insulator layer. sdfsdf.

Vertical stabilizer leading edge fin (2.16). *B carries a lot of structural load. sdafsdf.

Longerons are used in (2.11). *C semimonocoque type structure and are extended across more frames. sdfsdfsd.

In a monocoque fuselage structure the (2.10). *A = Stressed skin takes the loads and the formers keep the shape. sdf.

Movement of the tab surface (1.7). *C causes the movement of control surface in opposite direction. sfsdf.

Split rudder arrangement means (1.6). *A = That aircraft has split rudder surfaces - both operate at low speed, one operates at high speed. sdfsdf.

Lateral axis refers to (1.2). *C Longitudinal stability. fsadfsaf.

Swept and delta winged aircraft are suitable for (1.19). *B High Subsonic and supersonic aircraft. sdf.

The Mach number is the ratio of (1.16). *C = TAS (true air speed) to the speed of sound. dfg.

Speed brakes are located (1.14). *C as close as possible to he fuselage. sdfsdf.

Spoilers may have function of (1.14). *B Flight spoilers, speed brakes and aileron assisting surface. sddfsdf.

Elevons are combination of (1.13). *A Elevators and ailerons. sdfsdf.

Ruddervators controls the aircraft in (1.13). *A yaw and pitch directions. sdfsdf.

Flaperons are control devices that may act (1.12). *C as flaps and ailerons. sfsdf.

Fowler flap (1.2). *C extends on trailing edge of the wing and increases camber line of the wing and wing area. sdfsedf.

What is the purpose of high lift devices? (1.10). *C = To increase lift during certain flight phase. dfdf.

Flaps on most modern commercial aircraft can be extended up to (1.10). *B= 45º - 50º. sdfdf.

What is the purpose of yaw dampener unit (1.6). *C To detect slight yaw oscilations and send signal to rudder PCUs. asdasdf.

When the right pedal is pushed (1.6). *C = Rudder is moved to the right and aircraft turns to the right. sdfsdf.

Primary flight controls are used to (1.2). *B control the aircraft around the three axis. sdfsdf.