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177-251

COMENTARIOS ESTADÍSTICAS RÉCORDS
REALIZAR TEST
Título del Test:
177-251

Descripción:
Tapas certification (177 - 251)

Fecha de Creación: 2019/12/08

Categoría: Otros

Número Preguntas: 75

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177. Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information ?. in the MAC address table. n the CAM table. in the DHCP binding database. in the VLAN database.

178. A network administrator enters the following command on a router: logging trap 3. What are three message types that will be sent to the Syslog server? (Choose three). informational. emergency. warning. critical. debug. error.

179. Which two statements about RIPv2 are true? (Choose two). It sends periodic updates via broadcast. It does not support clear text authentication, similar to RIPv1. It uses the Bellman-Ford routing algorithm. It supports CIDR and VLSM. It stores RIP neighbor adjacency information in a neighbor table.

180. Which two differences between distance-vector and link-state routing protocols are true? (Choose two). Only link-state routing use the Bellman-Ford algorithm. Only distance-vector routing protocols send full routing table updates. Distance-vector routing protocols are less susceptible to loops than link-state protocols. Link-state routing protocols offer faster convergence than distance-vector protocols during network changes. Only distance-vector routing protocols maintain identical topology tables on all connected neighbors.

181. Which option is the main function of congestion management?. discarding excess traffic. queuing traffic based on priority. classifying traffic. providing long-term storage of buffered data.

182. Host A cannot ping Host B. Assuming routing is properly configured, what is the cause of this problem?. Host A is not on the same subnet as its default gateway. The address of SwitchA is a subnet address. The Fa0/0 interface on RouterA is on a subnet that can’t be used. The serial interfaces of the routers are not on the same subnet. The Fa0/0 interface on RouterB is using a broadcast address.

183. Which two options describe benefits of aggregated chassis technology? (Choose two). it reduces management overhead. it require only one ip address per VLAN. it requires only three ip address per VLAN. it supports HSRP VRRP GLBP. it support redundant configuration files.

184. Which three statements describe the reasons large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose three). to confine network instability to single areas of the network. to reduce the complexity of router configuration. to speed up convergence. to lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches. to decrease latency by increasing bandwidth. to reduce routing overhead.

185. When troubleshooting client DNS issues, which two tasks must you perform? (Choose two). Ping a public website IP address. Ping the DNS server. Determine whether the hardware address is correct. Determine whether a DHCP address has been assigned. Determine whether the name servers have been configured.

186. Which command can you enter to verify that a router is synced with a configured time source?. show ntp authenticate. ntp associations. ntp server time. ntp authenticate. show ntp associations.

187. Which three statements about the features of SNMPv2 and SNMPv3 are true?. SNMPv3 enhanced SNMPv2 security features. SNMPv3 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP. SNMPv2 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP. SNMPv3 added the GetBulk protocol messages to SNMP. SNMPv2 added the GetBulk protocol message to SNMP. SNMPv2 added the GetNext protocol message to SNMP.

188. which two cable specifications can support 1-gbps ethernet? (Choose two). Category 3. RG-6. Category 6. RG-11. Category 5e.

189. Which Cisco Catalyst feature automatically disables the port in an operational PortFast upon receipt of a BPDU?. BackboneFast. UplinkFast. Root Guard. BPDU Guard. BPDU Filter.

190. Which two statements about EUI-64 addressing are true? (Choose two). The address includes the hex digits FFFE after the last 24 bits of the interface MAC address. A 64-bit interface identifier is derived from the interface MAC address. A locally administrated address has the universal/local bit set to 0. A 96-bit interface identifier is derived from the interface MAC address. The address includes the hex digits FFFE after the first 24 bits of the interface MAC address.

191. Which two pieces of information about a cisco device can cisco discovery protocol communicate? (choose two). the trunking protocol. the spanning tree protocol. the spanning tree priorty. the VTP domain. the native VLAN.

192. Which two statements about UTP cables are true? (Choose two). Category 5e Ethernet cables support speeds up to 1000 Mbps. Category 5 Ethernet cables support speeds up to 1000 Mbps beyond 100m. Category 6a Ethernet cable can transmit up to 10 Gbps. All Ethernet cable types from Category 1 through Category 6 are suitable for transmitting data in the appropriate environments. Category 6 Ethernet cables are appropriate for installations of up to 200m.

193. Cisco IOS supports which OoS models?. Best-effort integrated services and differentiated services. Best-effort and differentiated services. best-effort and integrated services. integrated services and differentiated services.

194. Which command disables DTP?. switchport mode active. switchport nonegotiate. switchport mode passive. witchport negotiate.

195. Which enterprise device provides centralized control of authentication and roaming?. a lightweight access point. a LAN switch. a firewall. a wireless LAN controller.

196. How many bits can be used to identify unique hosts in the address range for network 10 0 0 0'8?. 8. 16. 24. 32.

197. Which command must be present in a Cisco device configuration to enable the device to resolve an FQDN?. ip domain-name. ip domain-lookup. ip host. ip name-server.

198. Which command should you enter to configure a DHCP client?. ip dhcp client. ip address dhcp. ip helper-address. ip dhcp pool.

199. You are implementing WAN access for an enterprise network while running applications that require a full meshed network, which two design standards are appropriate for such an environment? (Choose two ). multiple MPLS VPN connections with static routing. multiple MPLS VPN connections with dynamic routing. a collapsed core and distribution layer to minimize costs. centralized DMVPN solution to simplify connectivity for the enterprise. a dedicated WAN distribution layer, to consolidate connectivity to remote sites.

200. Which two commands can you enter to configure an interlace to actively negotiate an EtherChannel? (Choose two ). Channel-group 10 mode passive. Channel-group 10 mode desirable. Channel-group 10 mode active. Channel-group 10 mode auto. channel-group 10 mode on.

201. Refer to the exhibit Which two facts about the routing table are true? (Choose two ). The router uses interface GigabitEthernet0/0 to reach host address 10.111.35.106. The router uses interface Serial0/0/0 to reach host address 10.43.76.123. Three different networks are within the 10.0.0.0/8 range. Nine different networks are within the 10.0.0.0/8 range. The router uses Interface Serial0/0/0 to reach network 192.168.1.0/24.

202. When troubleshooting a user complaint you notice that two routers failed to establish an OSPF neighbor adjacency. Which two issues are root causes for the problem? (Choose two ). The passive-interface command is configured on the connected interfaces. OSPF is configured on the primary network of the neighbor but not on the secondary network. The two routers are configured with different process IDs ID. The two routers are using the same router ID. The two routers are configured with the same area ID.

203. Which two statements about how a router makes forwarding decisions are true? (Choose two ). The data plane gathers information from routing protocols. The data plane forwards traffic through the router. The control plane forwards traffic based on information that it receives from the data plane. The management plane gathers information from routing protocols. The management plane forwards traffic based on information that it receives from the data plane. The control plane gathers information from routing protocols.

204. Which action do you take to reset the VTP configuration revision number on a switch in VTP server made?. Change the VTP domain name to any new value and then change the name back to the original name. Change the VTP mode to off, and then change it back to server mode. Change the VTP mode to transparent and then change it to cent mode. Change the VTP mode to transparent, and then change a back to server mode.

205. Which two statements about southbound APIs are true? (Choose two ). They enable communication between the controller arid SDN applications. They use HTTP messages to communicate. OpenFlow is a southbound API standard. They enable communication between the controller and the network device. They communicate with the management plane.

206. When you configure and boot a new device when does the running configuration become active?. When the devices boots to ROMMON. Immediately after the power-on self-test. When IOS is loaded into RAM. When the startup configuration is copied into RAM.

207. Which command should you enter on an interlace in a vendor-neutral EtherChannel so that it will be selected first to transmit packets?. pagp system-priority 1024. lacp system-priority 1024. pagp port-priority 1024. Iacp port-priority 1024.

208. After you deploy a new WLAN controller on your network which two additional tasks you consider? (choose two). configure additional VLANs. deploy load balancers. configure multiple VRRP groups. deploy POE switches. configure additional security policies.

209. Which two commands can you use to configure a PAgP EtherChannel? (Choose two ). channel-group 10 mode auto. channel-group 10 mode passive. channel-group 10 mode desirable. channel-group 10 mode active. channel-group 10 mode on.

210. Which command should you enter to configure a single port to enter an err-disabled state when it receives an inferior BPDU?. spanning-tree portfast bpduguard. spanning-tree portfast default. spanning-tree guard root. spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter.

211. Which two statements about single and dual-homed links are true'? ( choose two ). Single-homed connections to a service provider require OSPF or EIGRP. Dual-homed connections to multiple service providers can use OSPF or EIGRP for load balancing. Dual-homed connection to multiple service providers typically use BGP. Dual-homed connections to a service provider most frequently use static routing. Single-homed connections to a service provider can use either static routing or BGP.

212. After you configure the ip dns spoofing command globally on a device, under which two conditions is DNS spoofing enabled on the device?(Choose two ). All configured IP name server addresses are removed. The Ip dns spoofing command is disabled on the local interface. The DNS server queue limit is disabled. The no ip domain lookup command is configured. The ip host command is disabled.

213. Which command should you enter to verify the priority of a router in an HSRP group?. show standby. show sessions. show hsrp. show interface.

214. Which feature or method can you use to isolate physical layer problems on a serial link?. Autonegotiation. Loopback tests. Protocol analyzer. UDLD.

215. Which algorithm is used for the frame check sequence in an Ethernet frame?. AES-2-56. SHA-1. MD5. CRC.

216. Which two features can you enable on a switch to capture network traffic and measure performance?(choose two). ACL. SPAN. IP SLA. STP. SNMP.

217. Which layer of the TCP/IP model manages the transmission of binary digits across an Ethernet Cable?. Data link. Transport. Network. Physical.

218. Which statement about recovering a password on a Cisco router is true?. It requires physical access to the router. A factory reset is required if you forget the password. The default reset password is cisco. It requires a secure SSL/VPN connection.

219. What are two advantages of static routing? (Choose two ). It allows the administrator to control the path of traffic. It can be implemented easily even in large environments. It cannot be used to load-balance traffic over multiple links. It allows the network to respond immediately to changes. It produces minimal CPU load.

220. Which two steps must you perform on each device that is configured for IPV4 routing before you implement OSPFv3? (Choose two ). Configure a router ID. Configure a loopback interface. Enable IPv6 on an interface. Enable IPv6 unicast routing. Configure an autonomous system number.

221. What is the effect of PortFast on the MAC aging process?. It prevents fast aging of MAC addresses when RSTP is in use. It ignores the MAC aging timer when RSTP is in use. It ignores the MAC aging timer when IEEE 802.1D is in use. It prevents fast aging of MAC addresses when IEEE 802.1D is in use.

222. Which two TLV's does LLDP support? (Choose two.). native VLAN. system description. spanning tree. port duplex. management address.

223. Which two circumstances can prevent two routers from establishing an EIGRP neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.). The two routers have the same autonomous system number. An ACL is blocking traffic from multicast address 224.0.0.5. The routers have mismatched K values. The routers are on different subnets. Both routers have the same router ID.

224. Which two features can dynamically assign IPv6 addresses? (Choose two ). DHCP. IPv6 stateless autoconfiguration. NHRP. ISATAP tunneling. IPv6 stateful autoconfiguration.

225. Which type of routing protocol operates by using first-hand information from each device's peers?. exterior gateway protocol. path vector protocols. distance vector protocols. link-state protocols.

226. According to industry best practices. which length is the recommended maximum for a Category 6 cable in a 10GBASE-T environment?. 100 meters. 55 meters. 37 meters. 300 meters.

227. Which two statements about floating static routes are true? (Choose two ). They are routes to the exact /32 destination address. They have a higher administrative distance than default static route administrative distance. They are used as backup routes when the pnmary route goes down. They are used when a route to the destination network is missing. They are dynamic routes that are learned from a server.

228. Which two IP SLA operations can you use to measure the end-to-end response time for all IP traffic between a Cisco router and an end device? (Choose two). ICMP echo. ICMP path Jitter. ICMP path echo. UDP echo. TCP connect. UDP Jitter.

229. Which type of port supports voice VLAN configuration?. private VLAN switch port. Layer 3 switch port. trunk switch port. access switch port.

230. Which two advantages do dynamic routing protocols provide over static routing? (Choose two.). Dynamic routing protocols are easier to manage on very large networks. Dynamic routing protocols automatically adapt to reroute traffic if possible. Dynamic routing is more secure than static routing. Only dynamic routing is supported on all typologies that require multiple routers. Dynamic routing requires fewer resources than static routing.

231. Refer to the exhibit Host 1 is trying to communicate with Host 2 The e0 interface on Router C is down. Which two statements are true? (Choose two ). Router C will send a Destination Unreachable message type. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1. Router A and Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1 that Host 2 cannot be reached. Router C will use ICMP to inform Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached. Router C will send a Router Selection message type. Router C will send a Source Quench message type.

232. Which two statements about northbound and southbound APIs are true? (Choose two ). Only northbound API interfaces use a Service Abstraction Layer. Both northbound and southbound APIs allow program control of the network. Only southbound APIs allow program control of the network. Only northbound APIs allow program control of the network. Only southbound API interfaces use a Service Abstraction Layer. Both northbound and southbound API interfaces use a Service Abstraction Layer.

233. Which step in the router boot process searches for an IOS image to load into the router?. bootstrap. ROMMON mode. POST. mini-IOS.

234. When you troubleshoot an IPv4 connectivity issue on a router which three router configuration checks you must perform?(Choose three ). Verify that the route appears in the routing table. Verify that a default route is configured. Verify that the router and the host use the same subset mask. Verify that the router firmware is up-to-date. Verify that the DNS is configured correctly. Verify that the router interface P address is correct.

235. Under which circumstance is a router on a stick most appropriate?. when the router must route a single subnet across mutiple physical links. when the router must route a single subnet across a single physical link. when the router must route multiple subnets across a single physical link. when the router must route multiple subnets across multiple physical links.

236. What is the danger of the permit any entry in a NAT access List?. It prevents the correct translation of IP addresses on the inside network. It can lead to overloaded resources on the router. It can disable the overload command. It can cause too many addresses to be assigned to the same interface.

237. Which command can you enter on a switch to determine the current SNMP security model?. show snmp pending. show snmp group. show snmp enginelD. nmp-server contact.

238. Which value is included in the initial TCP SYN message?. A TTL number. acknowledgment number. A session ID. A sequence number.

239. Which circumstance is a common cause of late collisions?. native VLAN mismatch. overloaded hardware queues. software misconfiguration. duplex mismatch.

240. Which two options are requirements for configuring RIPv2 on an IPv4 network router) (Choose two ). allowing unicast updates for RIP. enabling RIP on the router. enabling automatic route summanzation. enabling RIP authentication. connecting RIP to a WAN interface.

241. Refer to the exhibit Which two statements are true of the interfaces on Switch ? (Choose two ). FastEthernet0/1 is configured as a trunk link. Interface FastEthernet0/2 has been disable. Multiple devices are connected directly to FastEthernet0/1. A hub is connected directly to FastEthernet0/5. FastEthernet0/5 has statically assigned mac address. FastEthernet0/1 is connected to a host with multiple network interface cards.

242. Which two approaches are common when troubleshooting network issues? (Choose two ). Top-down. Divide and conquer. Layer-by-layer. Round-robin. Policing.

243. Which two descriptions of TACACS. are true') (Choose two). it uses UDP as its transom protocol. it encrypts only the password. it separates authentication authorization and accounting functions. it can authorize specific router commands. A combines authentication and authorization.

244. What is a valid HSRP virtual MAC address?. 0000.5E00.01A3. 0000.0C07.AC15. 0007.5E00.B301. 0007.B400.AE01.

245. Which two statements about Ethernet standards are true? (Choose two ). Ethernet is defined by IEEE standard 802.2. Ethernet is defined by IEEE standard 802.3. When an Ethernet network uses CSMA/CD, it terminates transmission as soon as a collision occurs. Ethernet 10BASE-T does not support full-duplex. When an Ethernet network uses CSMA/CA it terminates transmission as soon as a collision occurs.

246. Which two options are features of the extended ping command? (Choose two ). It can send a specified number of packets. It can send packets from a specified inteface or IP address. It can count the number of hops to the remote host. It can resolve the destination host name. It can ping multiple hosts as the same.

247. Which frame type allows STP to compute the spanning-tree topology. LSA. LSP. RSTP. BPDU.

248. Which utility can you use to identify redundant or shadow or shadow rules?. the ACL analysis tool in Cisco APIC-EM. the Act_ trace tool in Cisco AP1C-EM. the Cisco IWAN application. the Cisco APIC-Em automation scheduler.

249. Refer to the exhibit Which VLAN ID is associated with PC B?. VLAN 10. VLAN 5. VLAN 20. VLAN !.

251. What is the simplest IP SLA operation that can measure end to end response time between devices?. ICMP path echo. ICMP Jitter. ICMP echo. ICMP path.

250. Which two statements about IFV6 multicast addresses are true? (Choose two ). They use the prefix FF00:/8. If the scope parameter is set to 5 the route is local to the node. They identify a group of interfaces on different devices. They use the prefix FC80:/8. If the lifetime parameter is set to I the route is permanent.

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