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TCAS II provides. traffic and resolution advisories. proximity warning. maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic.

Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory is expected to notify ATC and. Mantain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact. Request a new ATC clearance. expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory, after the conflict is resolved.

Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS II, resolution advisory (RA) is expected to. Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact. Request a new ATC clearance. notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable.

With no traffic identified by TCAS, you. can rest assured that no other aircraft are in the area. must continually scan for other traffic in visual conditions. must scan only for hot air balloons.

While being radar vectored, to the final approach course of an IFR approach, when may the pilot descend to published altitudes?. Anytime the flight is on a published leg of an approach chart. When the flight is within the 10-mile ring of a published approach. Only when approach control clears the flight for the approach.

What action (s) should a pilot take if vectored across the final approach course during an IFR approach?. Continue on the last heading issued until otherwise instructed. Contact approach control, and advise that the flight is crossing the final approach course. Turn onto final, and broadcast in the blind that the flight has proceeded on final.

What is the difference between a visual and a contact approach?. A visual approach is an IFR authorization while a contact approach is an VFR authorization. A visual approach is initiated by ATC while a contact apprach is initiated by the pilot. Both are the same but classified according to the part initiating the approach.

How should a pilot describe braking action?. 00 percent, 50 percent, 75 percent, or 100 percent. Zero-zero, fifty-fift, or normal. Nil, poor, fair or good.

When entering a holding pattern above 14,000 feet, the initial outbound leg should not exceed. 1 minute. 1-1/2 minutes. 1-1/2 minutes or 10 NM, whichever is less.

Under what condition should a piot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status?. When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR. If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority. If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay.

You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency. Ifyourremainingusablefuelsupplysuggeststheneedfortrafficprioritytoensureasafelanding,declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes.

What is the hijack code?. 7200. 7500. 7777.

What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency?. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority. When distress conditions such as fie, mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs.

Which range of codes should a pilot avoid switching through when changing transponder codes?. 0000 through 1000. 7200 and 7500 series. 7500, 7600 and 7700 series.

How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time?. Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed. Shallow the bank and increase airspeed.

Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude?. Compensate for loss of vertical component of the lift. Increase the horizontal component of the lift equal to the vertical component. Compensate for increase in drag.

Which condition reduces the required runway for the takeoff?. Higher-than-recomended airspeed before rotation. Lower-than-standard air density. Increase headwind component.

Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases, for a given runway?. Critical engine failure speed. Rotation speed. Accelerate-stop distance.

What effect does landing at high elevation airports have on groundspeed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind and airplane weight?. Higher than at low elevation. Lower than at low elevation. The same as at low elevation.

When checking the course sensitivity of a VOR receiver, how many degrees should the OBS be rotated to move the CDI from the center to the last dot on either side?. 5° to 10°. 10° to 12°. 18° to 20°.

An aircraft 60 miles from a VOR station has a CDI indication of one-fifth deflection, this represents a course centerline deviation of approximately. 6 miles. 2 miles. 1 mile.

Which situation would result in reverse sensing of a VOR receiver?. Flying a heading that is reciprocal to the bearing selected on the OBS. Setting the OBS to a bearing that is 90° from the bearing on which the aircraft is located. FailingtochangetheOBSfromtheselectedinboundcoursetotheoutboundcourseafterpassingthestation.

To track outbound on the 180 radial of a VOR station, the recommended procedure is to set the OBS to. 360° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle. 180° and make heading corrections away from the CDI needle. 180° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle.

To track inbound on the 215 radial of a VOR station, the recommended procedure is to set the OBS to. 215° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle. 215° and make heading corrections away from the CDI needle. 035° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle.

What is the primary cause off all changes in the Earths weather?. Variations of solar energy at the Earths surface. Changes in air pressure over the Earth’s surface. Movment of air masses from moist areas to dry areas.

Which weather condition is defined as an anticyclone?. Calm. High pressure area. COL.

Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight?. Freezing rain. Clear air turbulence. Embedded thundrestorms.

What phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?. The appearance of an anvil top. The start of rain at the surface. Growth rate of cloud is ai its maximum.

What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight?. Supercooled water drops. Water vapor. Visible water.

The ADF is tuned to a radiobeacon. If the magnetic heading is 040° and the relative bearing is 290°, the magnetic bearing TO that radiobeacon would be. 150°. 285°. 330°.

If the relative bearing to a nondirectional radiobeacon is 045° and the magnetic heading is 355°, the magnetic bearing TO that radio beacon would be. 040°. 065°. 220°.

(Refer to Figure 30.) At the position indicated by instrument group 1, to intercept the 330° magnetic bearing to the NDB at a 30° angle, the aircraft should be turned. Left to a heading of 270°. Right to a heading of 330°. Right to a heading of 360°.

Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present?. Wet snow. Freezing rain. Ice pellets.

Which weather condition is present when the tropical strom is upgraded to a hurricane?. Highest windspeed, 100 Knots or more. A clear area or hurricane eyes has formed. Sustained winds of 65 Knots or mire.

ILS critical area sign indicates. Where aircraft are prohibited. The edge of the ILS critical area. The exit boundary.

Airport information signs, used to provide destination or information, have. yellow inscriptions on a black background. white inscriptions on a black background. black inscriptions on a yellow background.

Holding position signs have. white inscriptions on a red background. red inscriptions on a white background. yellow inscriptions on a red background.