8 Instru

4640. Which is true regarding STARs?. A— STARs are used to separate IFR and VFR traffic. B— STARs are established to simplify clearance delivery procedures. C— STARs are used at certain airports to decrease traffic congestion.

4286. (Refer to Figures 35 and 35A.) At which point does the BUJ.BUJ3 arrival begin?. A— At the TXK VORTAC. B— At BOGAR intersection. C— At the BUJ VORTAC.

4292. (Refer to Figures 41 and 41A.) At which point does the AQN.AQN2 arrival begin?. A— ABI VORTAC. B— ACTON VORTAC. C— CREEK intersection.

4294. (Refer to Figures 41 and 41A.) On which heading should you plan to depart CREEK intersection? . A— 010°. B— 040°. C— 350°.

4349. (Refer to Figure 72.) At which location or condition does the IGN.JUDDS2 arrival begin?. A— JUDDS intersection. B— IGN VORTAC. C— BRISS intersection.

4751. Under which condition does ATC issue a STAR?. A— To all pilots wherever STAR’s are available. B— Only if the pilot requests a STAR in the “Remarks” section of the flight plan. C— When ATC deems it appropriate, unless the pilot requests “No STAR.”.

4281. (Refer to Figures 35 and 37.) What is your position relative to the CONNY intersection on the BUJ. BUJ3 transition?. A— Left of the TXK R-272 and approaching the BUJ R-059°. B— Left of the TXK R-266 and past the BUJ R-065. C— Right of the TXK R-270 and approaching the BUJ R-245.

4403. When are ATIS broadcasts updated?. A— Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below basic VFR; otherwise, hourly. B— Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values. C— Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value.

4403-1. What is the rule for a pilot receiving a Land and Hold Short Operation (LAHSO) clearance?. A— The pilot is required to accept the controller’s clearance in visual meteorological conditions. B— The pilot must accept the clearance if the pavement is dry and the stopping distance is adequate. C— The pilot has the option to accept or reject all LAHSO clearances regardless of the meteorological conditions.

4404. Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an. ATIS broadcast specifically implies that A— the ceiling is more than 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more. B— the sky condition is clear and visibility is unrestricted. C— the ceiling is at least 3,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.

4293. (Refer to Figures 41 and 41A.) Which frequency would you anticipate using to contact Regional Approach Control? (ACTON TWO ARRIVAL). A— 119.05. B— 124.15. C— 125.8.

4295. (Refer to Figures 41, 42, and 42A.) Approaching DFW from Abilene, which frequencies should you expect to use for Regional Approach Control, control tower, and ground control respectively?. A— 119.05; 126.55; 121.65. B— 119.05; 124.15; 121.8. C— 125.8; 124.15; 121.8.

4469. When are you required to establish communications with the tower, (Class D airspace) if you cancel your IFR flight plan 10 miles from the destination?. A— Immediately after canceling the flight plan. B— When advised by ARTCC. C— Before entering Class D airspace.

4726. You are being vectored to the ILS approach course, but have not been cleared for the approach. It becomes evident that you will pass through the localizer course. What action should be taken?. A— Turn outbound and make a procedure turn. B— Continue on the assigned heading and query ATC. C— Start a turn to the inbound heading and inquire if you are cleared for the approach.

4734. When being radar vectored for an ILS approach, at what point may you start a descent from your last assigned altitude to a lower minimum altitude if cleared for the approach?. A— When established on a segment of a published route or IAP. B— You may descend immediately to published glide slope interception altitude. C— Only after you are established on the final approach unless informed otherwise by ATC.

4757. While being vectored, if crossing the ILS final approach course becomes imminent and an approach clearance has not been issued, what action should be taken by the pilot?. A— Turn outbound on the final approach course, execute a procedure turn, and inform ATC. B— Turn inbound and execute the missed approach procedure at the outer marker if approach clearance has not been received. C— Maintain the last assigned heading and query ATC.

4641. While being radar vectored, an approach clearance is received. The last assigned altitude should be maintained until. A— reaching the FAF. B— advised to begin descent. C— established on a segment of a published route or IAP.

4740. When cleared to execute a published sidestep maneuver for a specific approach and landing on the parallel runway, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?. A— At the published minimum altitude for a circling approach. B— As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight. C— At the localizer MDA minimum and when the runway is in sight.

4715. How can an IAF be identified on a Standard Instrument Approach Procedure (SIAP) Chart?. A— All fixes that are labeled IAF. B— Any fix illustrated within the 10 mile ring other than the FAF or stepdown fix. C— The procedure turn and the fixes on the feeder facility ring.

4746. Which fixes on the IAP Charts are initial approach fixes?. A— Any fix on the en route facilities ring, the feeder facilities ring, and those at the start of arc approaches. B— Only the fixes at the start of arc approaches and those on either the feeder facilities ring or en route facilities ring that have a transition course shown to the approach procedure. C— Any fix that is identified by the letters IAF.

4632. When the approach procedure involves a procedure turn, the maximum speed should not be greater than. A— 180 knots IAS. B— 200 knots IAS. C— 250 knots IAS.

4636. What does the absence of the procedure turn barb on the plan view on an approach chart indicate?. A— A procedure turn is not authorized. B— Teardrop-type procedure turn is authorized. C— Racetrack-type procedure turn is authorized.

4767. Where a holding pattern is specified in lieu of a procedure turn, the holding maneuver must be executed within. A— the 1 minute time limitation or DME distance as specified in the profile view. B— a radius of 5 miles from the holding fix. C— 10 knots of the specified holding speed.

4771. Assume this clearance is received: “CLEARED FOR ILS RUNWAY 07 LEFT APPROACH, SIDE-STEP TO RUNWAY 07 RIGHT.” When would the pilot be expected to commence the side-step maneuver?. A— As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight. B— Any time after becoming aligned with the final approach course of Runway 07 left, and after passing the final approach fix. C— After reaching the circling minimums for Runway 07 right.

4670. When simultaneous approaches are in progress, how does each pilot receive radar advisories?. A— On tower frequency. B— On approach control frequency. C— One pilot on tower frequency and the other on approach control frequency.

4670-1. Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM) is. A— an airborne radar system for monitoring approaches to two runways. B— a radar system for monitoring approaches to closely spaced parallel runways. C— a high update rate radar system for monitoring multiple aircraft to a single runway.

4670-2. A Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM) approach may require. A— monitoring of two communication frequencies simultaneously. B— special training and monitoring of two ILS receivers simultaneously. C— tracking performance parameters within the “decision region” of: 1/3 dot localizer and 1/2 dot glideslope displacement.

4274. (Refer to Figure 29.) What is the TDZ elevation for RWY 16 on Eugene/Mahlon Sweet Field?. A— 363 feet MSL. B— 365 feet MSL. C— 396 feet MSL.

4276. (Refer to Figure 29 and Legend 21.) Using a ground speed of 90 knots on the ILS final approach course, what rate of descent should be used as a reference to maintain the ILS glide slope?. A— 415 feet per minute. B— 478 feet per minute. C— 555 feet per minute.

4282. (Refer to Figure 36A.) Under which condition should the missed approach procedure for the VOR/ DME RNAV RWY 33 approach be initiated?. A— Immediately upon reaching the 5.0 DME from the FAF. B— When passage of the MAP way point is shown on the ambiguity indicator. C— After the MDA is reached and 1.8 DME fix from the MAP way point.

4283-1. (Refer to Figure 36A.) What is the MDA and visibility criteria respectively for the S 33 approach procedure?. A— 1,240 feet MSL; 1 SM. B— 1,280 feet MSL; 1 and 1/4 SM. C— 1,300 feet MSL; 1 SM.

4283-2. (Refer to Figure 36A.) What is the MDA and visibility criteria respectively for the S 33 approach procedure?. A— 1,240 feet MSL; 1/2 SM. B— 1,240 feet MSL; 1 SM. C— 1,280 feet MSL; 1 and 1/4 SM.

4285. (Refer to Figure 36A.) What is the minimum number of way points required for the complete RNAV RWY 33 approach procedure including the IAF’s and missed approach procedure?. A— One way point. B— Two way points. C— Three way points.

4296. (Refer to Figure 42A.) Which navigational information and services would be available to the pilot when using the localizer frequency?. A— Localizer and glide slope, DME, TACAN with no voice capability. B— Localizer information only, ATIS and DME are available. C— Localizer and glide slope, DME, and no voice capability.

4297. (Refer to Figures 42 and 42A.) What is the difference in elevation (in feet MSL) between the airport elevation and the TDZE for RWY 36L?. A— 15 feet. B— 18 feet. C— 22 feet.

4298. (Refer to Figure 42A.) What rate of descent should you plan to use initially to establish the glidepath for the ILS RWY 36L approach? (Use 120 knots ground speed.). A— 425 feet per minute. B— 530 feet per minute. C— 635 feet per minute.

4299. (Refer to Figures 42A and 43.) What is your position relative to CHAAR intersection? The aircraft is level at 3,000 feet MSL. A— Right of the localizer course approaching CHAAR intersection and approaching the glide slope. B— Left of the localizer course approaching CHAAR intersection and below the glide slope. C— Right of the localizer course, past CHAAR intersection and above the glide slope.

4306. (Refer to Figure 49.) What determines the MAP on the LOC/DME RWY 21 approach at Portland International Airport?. A— I-GPO 1.2 DME. B— 5.8 NM from ROBOT FAF. C— 160° radial of BTG VORTAC.

4307. (Refer to Figures 44 and 49.) What is the MDA and visibility criteria for a straight-in LOC/DME RWY 21 approach at Portland International?. A— 1,100 feet MSL; visibility 1 SM. B— 680 feet MSL; visibility 1 SM. C— 680 feet MSL; visibility 1 NM.

4308. (Refer to Figure 49.) When conducting the LOC/ DME RWY 21 approach at PDX, what is the Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA) while maneuvering between the BTG VORTAC and CREAK intersection?. A— 3,400 feet MSL. B— 5,700 feet MSL. C— 6,100 feet MSL.

4975. (Refer to Figure 49.) When conducting a missed approach from the LOC/DME RWY 21 approach at PDX, what is the Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA) while maneuvering between the runway and BTG VORTAC?. A— 4,000 feet MSL. B— 3,400 feet MSL. C— 6,100 feet MSL.

4309. (Refer to Figure 49.) You have been cleared to the CREAK intersection via the BTG 054° radial at 7,000 feet. Approaching CREAK, you are cleared for the LOC/ DME RWY 21 approach to PDX. Descent to procedure turn altitude should not begin prior to. A— completion of the procedure turn, and established on the localizer. B— CREAK outbound. C— intercepting the glide slope.

4310. (Refer to Figure 49.) With a ground speed of 120 knots, approximately what minimum rate of descent will be required between I-GPO 7 DME fix (ROBOT) and the I-GPO 4 DME fix?. A— 1,200 fpm. B— 500 fpm. C— 800 fpm.

4311. (Refer to Figure 49.) What is the usable runway length for landing on runway 21 at PDX?. A— 5,957 feet. B— 7,000 feet. C— 7,900 feet.

4319. (Refer to Figure 55.) Using an average ground speed of 90 knots, what constant rate of descent from 2,400 feet MSL at the 6 DME fix would enable the aircraft to arrive at 2,000 feet MSL at the FAF?. A— 200 feet per minute. B— 400 feet per minute. C— 600 feet per minute.

4321. (Refer to Figure 55.) Under which condition should a missed approach procedure be initiated if the runway environment (Paso Robles Municipal Airport) is not in sight?. A— After descending to 1,440 feet MSL. B— After descent to 1,440 feet or reaching the 1 NM DME, whichever occurs first. C— When you reach the established missed approach point and determine the visibility is less than 1 mile.

4332. (Refer to Figure 60A.) What is the elevation of the TDZE for RWY 4?. A— 70 feet MSL. B— 54 feet MSL. C— 46 feet MSL.

4350. (Refer to Figure 72.) How many precision approach procedures are published for Bradley International Airport?. A— One. B— Three. C— Four.

4351. (Refer to Figure 73.) What is the minimum altitude at which you should intercept the glide slope on the ILS RWY 6 approach procedure?. A— 3,000 feet MSL. B— 1,800 feet MSL. C— 1,690 feet MSL.

4352. (Refer to Figure 73.) At which indication or occurrence should you initiate the published missed approach procedure for the ILS RWY 6 approach provided the runway environment is not in sight?. A— When reaching 374 feet MSL indicated altitude. B— When 3 minutes (at 90 knots ground speed) have expired or reaching 374 feet MSL, whichever occurs first. C— Upon reaching 374 feet AGL.

4354. (Refer to Figure 73.) Using an average ground speed of 90 knots on the final approach segment, what rate of descent should be used initially to establish the glidepath for the ILS RWY 6 approach procedure?. A— 395 feet per minute. B— 480 feet per minute. C— 555 feet per minute.

4355. (Refer to Figure 73.) What is the touchdown zone elevation for RWY 6?. A— 174 feet MSL. B— 200 feet AGL. C— 270 feet MSL.

4357. (Refer to Figure 73.) Which runway and landing environment lighting is available for approach and landing on RWY 6 at Bradley International?. A— HIRL, REIL, and VASI. B— HIRL and VASI. C— ALSF2 and HIRL.

4368. (Refer to Figures 74 and 80.) Which aircraft approach category should be used for a circling approach for a landing on RWY 27?. A— A. B— B. C— C.

4369. (Refer to Figure 80.) How many initial approach fixes serve the VOR/DME RWY 27R (Billings Logan) approach procedure?. A— Three. B— Four. C— Five.

4371. (Refer to Figure 80.) What is the TDZE for landing on RWY 27R?. A— 3,649 feet MSL. B— 3,514 feet MSL. C— 3,450 feet MSL.

4470. What does the symbol T within a black triangle in the minimums section of the IAP for a particular airport indicate?. A— Takeoff minimums are 1 mile for aircraft having two engines or less and 1/2 mile for those with more than two engines. B— Instrument takeoffs are not authorized. C— Takeoff minimums are not standard and/or departure procedures are published.

4635. (Refer to Figure 118.) During the ILS RWY 12L procedure at DSM, what altitude minimum applies if the glide slope becomes inoperative?. A— 1,420 feet. B— 1,360 feet. C— 1,121 feet.

4642. (Refer to Figure 119.) The final approach fix for the precision approach is located at. A— DENAY intersection. B— Glide slope intercept (lightning bolt). C— ROMEN intersection/locator outer marker.

4648. (Refer to Figure 120.) Refer to the DEN ILS RWY 35R procedure. The FAF intercept altitude is. A— 7,488 feet MSL. B— 7,500 feet MSL. C— 9,000 feet MSL.

4649. (Refer to Figure 120.) The symbol on the plan view of the ILS RWY 35R procedure at DEN represents a minimum safe sector altitude within 25 NM of. A— Denver VORTAC. B— Gandi outer marker. C— Denver/Stapleton International Airport.

4650. (Refer to Figure 121.) During the ILS RWY 30R procedure at DSM, the minimum altitude for glide slope interception is. A— 2,365 feet MSL. B— 2,500 feet MSL. C— 3,000 feet MSL.

4651. (Refer to Figure 121.) During the ILS RWY 30R procedure at DSM, what MDA applies should the glide slope become inoperative?. A— 1,157 feet. B— 1,320 feet. C— 1,360 feet.

4652. (Refer to Figure 122.) The missed approach point of the ATL S-LOC 8L procedure is located how far from the LOM?. A— 4.8 NM. B— 5.1 NM. C— 5.2 NM.

4654. (Refer to Figure 123.) The symbol on the plan view of the VOR/DME-A procedure at 7D3 represents a minimum safe sector altitude within 25 NM of. A— DEANI intersection. B— White Cloud VORTAC. C— Baldwin Municipal Airport.

4655. (Refer to Figure 124.) What options are available concerning the teardrop course reversal for LOC RWY 35 approach to Duncan/Halliburton Field?. A— If a course reversal is required, only the teardrop can be executed. B— The point where the turn is begun and the type and rate of turn are optional. C— A normal procedure turn may be made if the 10 DME limit is not exceeded.

4656. (Refer to Figure 124.) The point on the teardrop procedure where the turn inbound (LOC RWY 35) Duncan/ Halliburton, is initiated is determined by. A— DME and timing to remain within the 10-NM limit. B— Timing for a 2 minute maximum. C— Estimating ground speed and radius of turn.

4657. (Refer to Figure 125.) If your aircraft was cleared for the ILS RWY 17R at Lincoln Municipal and crossed the Lincoln VOR at 5,000 feet MSL, at what point in the teardrop could a descent to 3,000 feet commence?. A— As soon as intercepting LOC inbound. B— Immediately. C— Only at the point authorized by ATC.

4658. (Refer to Figure 125.) If cleared for an S-LOC 17R approach at Lincoln Municipal from over TOUHY, it means the flight should. A— land straight in on runway 17R. B— comply with straight-in landing minimums. C— begin final approach without making a procedure turn.

4659. (Refer to Figure 126.) What landing minimums apply for a 14 CFR Part 91 operator at Dothan, AL using a category C aircraft during a circling LOC 31 approach at 120 knots? (DME available). A— MDA 860 feet MSL and visibility 2 SM. B— MDA 860 feet MSL and visibility 1 and 1/2 SM. C— MDA 720 feet MSL and visibility 3/4 SM.

4660. (Refer to Figure 126.) If cleared for a straight-in LOC approach from over OALDY, it means the flight should. A— land straight in on runway 31. B— comply with straight-in landing minimums. C— begin final approach without making a procedure turn.

4661. (Refer to Figure 126.) What is the ability to identify the RRS 2.5 stepdown fix worth in terms of localizer circle-to-land minimums for a category C aircraft?. A— Decreases MDA by 20 feet. B— Decreases visibility by 1/2 SM. C— Without the stepdown fix, a circling approach is not available.

4662. (Refer to Figure 127.) If cleared for NDB RWY 28 approach (Lancaster/Fairfield) over ZZV VOR, the flight would be expected to Category A aircraft Last assigned altitude 3,000 feet. A— proceed straight in from CRISY, descending to MDA after CASER. B— proceed to CRISY, then execute the teardrop procedure as depicted on the approach chart. C— proceed direct to CASER, then straight in to S-28 minimums of 1620-1.

4672. During an instrument precision approach, terrain and obstacle clearance depends on adherence to. A— minimum altitude shown on the IAP. B— terrain contour information. C— natural and man-made reference point information.

4677. (Refer to Figure 128.) At which points may you initiate a descent to the next lower minimum altitude when cleared for the VOR RWY 36 approach, from the PUC R-095 IAF (DME operative)?. A— Start descent from 8,000 when established on final, from 7,500 when at the 4 DME fix, and from 6,180 when landing requirements are met. B— Start descent from 8,000 when established on the PUC R-186, from 6,400 at the 4 DME fix, and from 6,180 when landing requirements are met. C— Start descent from 8,000 at the R-127, from 6,400 at the LR-127, from 6,180 at the 4 DME fix.

4678. (Refer to Figure 128.) What is the purpose of the 10,300 MSA on the Price/Carbon County Airport Approach Chart?. A— It provides safe clearance above the highest obstacle in the defined sector out to 25 NM. B— It provides an altitude above which navigational course guidance is assured. C— It is the minimum vector altitude for radar vectors in the sector southeast of PUC between 020° and 290° magnetic bearing to PUC VOR.

4680. (Refer to Figure 129.) What indication should you get when it is time to turn inbound while in the procedure turn at LABER?. A— 4 DME miles from LABER. B— 10 DME miles from the MAP. C— 12 DME miles from LIT VORTAC.

4682. (Refer to Figure 129.) How should the missed approach point be identified when executing the RNAV RWY 36 approach at Adams Field?. A— When the TO-FROM indicator changes. B— Upon arrival at 760 feet on the glidepath. C— When time has expired for 5 NM past the FAF.

4682-1. (Refer to Figure 129 and Legend 21.) You have been cleared for the RNAV RWY 36 approach to LIT. At a ground speed of 105 knots, what are the vertical descent angle and rate of descent on final approach?. A— 2.82 degrees and 524 feet per minute. B— 3.00 degrees and 500 feet per minute. C— 2.80 degrees and 550 feet per nautical mile.

4683. (Refer to Figure 129.) What is the position of LABER relative to the reference facility?. A— 316°, 24.3 NM. B— 177°, 10 NM. C— 198°, 8 NM.

4686. (Refer to Figure 130.) What are the procedure turn restrictions on the LDA RWY 6 approach at Roanoke Regional?. A— Remain within 10 NM of CLAMM INT and on the north side of the approach course. B— Remain within 10 NM of the airport on the north side of the approach course. C— Remain within 10 NM of the outer marker on the north side of the approach course.

4687. (Refer to Figure 130.) What are the restrictions regarding circle to land procedures for LDA RWY/GS 6 approach at Roanoke Regional?. A— Circling to runway 24 not authorized. B— Circling not authorized NW of RWY 6-24. C— Visibility increased 1/2 mile for circling approach.

4688. (Refer to Figure 130.) At what minimum altitude should you cross CLAMM intersection during the S-LDA 6 approach at Roanoke Regional?. A— 4,200 MSL. B— 4,182 MSL. C— 2,800 MSL.

4689. (Refer to Figure 130.) How should the pilot identify the missed approach point for the S-LDA GS 6 approach to Roanoke Regional?. A— Arrival at 1,540 feet on the glide slope. B— Arrival at 1.0 DME on the LDA course. C— Time expired for distance from OM to MAP.

4690. (Refer to Figure 131.) The control tower at BOS reports “tall vessels” in the approach area. What are the VOR/DME RNAV RWY 4R straight-in approach minimums for Category A aircraft. A— 890/24. B— 840/40. C— 890/40.

4691. (Refer to Figure 131.) What determines the MAP for the straight-in VOR/DME RNAV RWY 4R approach at BOS?. A— RULSY way point. B— .5 NM to RULSY way point. C— 2.5 NM to RULSY at 840 feet MSL.

4692. Which of the following statements is true regarding Parallel ILS approaches?. A— Parallel ILS approach runway centerlines are separated by at least 4,300 feet and standard IFR separation is provided on the adjacent runway. B— Parallel ILS approaches provide aircraft a minimum of 1-1/2 miles radar separation between successive aircraft on the adjacent localizer course. C— Landing minimums to the adjacent runway will be higher than the minimums to the primary runway, but will normally be lower than the published circling minimums.

4693. (Refer to Figure 131.) What is the landing distance available for the VOR/DME RNAV RWY 4R approach at BOS?. A— 7,000 feet. B— 10,005 feet. C— 8,850 feet.

4694. (Refer to Figure 131.) During a missed approach from the VOR/DME RNAV RWY 4R approach at BOS, what course should be flown to the missed approach holding way point?. A— 036°. B— Runway heading. C— 033°.

4671. During an instrument approach, under what conditions, if any, is the holding pattern course reversal not required?. A— When radar vectors are provided. B— When cleared for the approach. C— None, since it is always mandatory.

4696. (Refer to Figure 133.) How should a pilot reverse course to get established on the inbound course of the ILS RWY 9, if radar vectoring or the three IAF’s are not utilized?. A— Execute a standard 45° procedure turn toward Seal Beach VORTAC or Pomona VORTAC. B— Make an appropriate entry to the depicted holding pattern at Swan Lake OM/INT. C— Use any type of procedure turn, but remain within 10 NM of Riverside VOR.

4700. (Refer to Figure 133.) Why are two VOR/LOC receivers recommended to obtain an MDA of 1,160 when making an S-LOC 9 approach to Riverside Municipal?. A— To obtain R-327 of PDZ when on the localizer course. B— In order to identify Riverside VOR. C— To utilize the published stepdown fix.

4701. (Refer to Figure 133.) What is the minimum altitude descent procedure if cleared for the S-ILS 9 approach from Seal Beach VORTAC?. A— Descend and maintain 3,000 to JASER INT, descend to and maintain 2,500 until crossing SWAN LAKE, descend and maintain 1,260 until crossing AGNES, and to 991 (DH) after passing AGNES. B— Descend and maintain 3,000 to JASER INT, descend to 2,800 when established on the LOC course, intercept and maintain the GS to 991 (DH). C— Descend and maintain 3,000 to JASER INT, descend to 2,500 while established on the LOC course inbound, intercept and maintain the GS to 991 (DH).

4714. Which procedure should be followed by a pilot who is circling to land in a Category B airplane, but is maintaining a speed 5 knots faster than the maximum specified for that category?. A— Use the approach minimums appropriate for Category C. B— Use Category B minimums. C— Use Category D minimums since they apply to all circling approaches.

4717. Aircraft approach categories are based on. A— certificated approach speed at maximum gross weight. B— 1.3 times the stall speed in landing configuration at maximum gross landing weight. C— 1.3 times the stall speed at maximum gross weight.

4744. If all ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not established, the missed approach should be initiated upon. A— arrival at the DH on the glide slope. B— arrival at the middle marker. C— expiration of the time listed on the approach chart for missed approach.

4749. When may a pilot make a straight-in landing, if using an IAP having only circling minimums?. A— A straight-in landing may not be made, but the pilot may continue to the runway at MDA and then circle to land on the runway. B— The pilot may land straight-in if the runway is the active runway and he has been cleared to land. C— A straight-in landing may be made if the pilot has the runway in sight in sufficient time to make a normal approach for landing, and has been cleared to land.

4763. If during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the approach lights are not visible upon arrival at the DH, the pilot is. A— required to immediately execute the missed approach procedure. B— permitted to continue the approach and descend to the localizer MDA. C— permitted to continue the approach to the approach threshold of the ILS runway.

4763-1. How can the pilot determine, for an ILS runway equipped with MALSR, that there may be penetration of the obstacle identification surfaces (OIS), and care should be taken in the visual segment to avoid any obstacles?. A— The runway has a visual approach slope indicator (VASI). B— The published visibility for the ILS is no lower than 3/4 SM. C—The approach chart has a visual descent point (VDP) published.

4764. Immediately after passing the final approach fix inbound during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the glide slope warning flag appears. The pilot is. A— permitted to continue the approach and descend to the DH. B— permitted to continue the approach and descend to the localizer MDA. C— required to immediately begin the prescribed missed approach procedure.

4764-1. (Refer to Figure 152.) Why is there a note stating a temperature limitation for executing this approach with BARO-VNAV equipment?. A— The descent gradient exceeds the maximum standard of 400-foot per Nautical Mile at low temperatures. B— The decision altitude and final approach segment height above obstacles or terrain is unsafe when temperatures are lower than charted. C— The missed approach climb gradient exceeds the airplane maximum standard of 40 to 1 at low temperatures.

4955. (Refer to Figure 152.) At what point is the pilot authorized to descend below 5,200 feet when cleared to the SUXYO waypoint from the West?. A— 24 N from AJCIZ. B— 24 NM from SUXYO. C— 30 NM from SUXYO.

4956. (Refer to Figure 152.) What waypoints are designated as fly-over waypoints?. A— FAF and AGHAN. B— Missed approach and AGHAN. C— Missed approach and the IAFs.

4956-1. (Refer to Figure 152.) How do you enter the approach if the aircraft is 27 DME from the AJCIZ intersection heading 300°?. A— Begin final approach with a procedure turn. B— Begin final approach without a procedure turn. C— Continue to LNAV minimums after completing the procedure turn.

4956-2. (Refer to Figure 152.) Why is the required visibility for LNAV/VNAV higher than that for LNAV alone?. A—The location of obstacles along the descent path. B—An LNAV/VNAV procedure always has higher visibility minimums. C—The location of the MAP in relation to the MDA for LNAV procedure requires lower visibility minimums.

4956-3. (Refer to Figure 153.) For a stabilized approach, the aircraft must be in an approved configuration for landing. A— with the engines spooled up, before descending below 1,768 feet MSL. B— with the correct speed and on glide path before descending below 1,268 feet MSL. C— with a descent rate of less than 1,000 FPM below 1,080 feet MSL and bank angles of less than 15° below 500 feet AGL.

4711. Where may you use a surveillance approach?. A— At any airport that has an approach control. B— At any airport which has radar service. C— At airports for which civil radar instrument approach minimums have been published.

4728. How is ATC radar used for instrument approaches when the facility is approved for approach control service?. A— Precision approaches, weather surveillance, and as a substitute for any inoperative component of a navigation aid used for approaches. B— ASR approaches, weather surveillance, and course guidance by approach control. C— Course guidance to the final approach course, ASR and PAR approaches, and the monitoring of nonradar approaches.

4741. Which information, in addition to headings, does the radar controller provide without request during an ASR approach?. A— The recommended altitude for each mile from the runway. B— When reaching the MDA. C— When to commence descent to MDA, the aircraft’s position each mile on final from the runway, and arrival at the MAP.

4822. During a “no-gyro” approach and prior to being handed off to the final approach controller, the pilot should make all turns. A— one-half standard rate unless otherwise advised. B— any rate not exceeding a 30° bank. C— standard rate unless otherwise advised.

4823. After being handed off to the final approach controller during a “no-gyro” surveillance or precision approach, the pilot should make all turns. A— one half standard-rate. B— based upon the ground speed of the aircraft. C— standard-rate.

4718. What are the main differences between a visual approach and a contact approach?. A— The pilot must request a contact approach; the pilot may be assigned a visual approach and higher weather minimums must exist. B— The pilot must request a visual approach and report having the field in sight; ATC may assign a contact approach if VFR conditions exist. C— Any time the pilot reports the field in sight, ATC may clear the pilot for a contact approach; for a visual approach, the pilot must advise that the approach can be made under VFR conditions.

4735. What are the requirements for a contact approach to an airport that has an approved IAP, if the pilot is on an instrument flight plan and clear of clouds?. A— The controller must determine that the pilot can see the airport at the altitude flown and can remain clear of clouds. B— The pilot must agree to the approach when given by ATC and the controller must have determined that the visibility was at least 1 mile and be reasonably sure the pilot can remain clear of clouds. C— The pilot must request the approach, have at least 1-mile visibility, and be reasonably sure of remaining clear of clouds.

4737. When may you obtain a contact approach?. A— ATC may assign a contact approach if VFR conditions exist or you report the runway in sight and are clear of clouds. B— ATC may assign a contact approach if you are below the clouds and the visibility is at least 1 mile. C— ATC will assign a contact approach only upon request if the reported visibility is at least 1 mile.

4750. A contact approach is an approach procedure that may be used. A— in lieu of conducting a SIAP. B— if assigned by ATC and will facilitate the approach. C— in lieu of a visual approach.

4743. What conditions are necessary before ATC can authorize a visual approach?. A— You must have the preceding aircraft in sight, and be able to remain in VFR weather conditions. B— You must have the airport in sight or the preceding aircraft in sight, and be able to proceed to, and land in IFR conditions. C— You must have the airport in sight or a preceding aircraft to be followed, and be able to proceed to the airport in VFR conditions.

4712. You arrive at your destination airport on an IFR flight plan. Which is a prerequisite condition for the performance of a contact approach?. A— Clear of clouds and at least 1 SM flight visibility. B— A ground visibility of at least 2 SM. C— A flight visibility of at least 1/2 NM.

4627. If only one missed approach procedure is available, which of the following conditions is required when conducting “timed approaches from a holding fix”?. A— The pilot must contact the airport control tower prior to departing the holding fix inbound. B— The reported ceiling and visibility minimums must be equal to or greater than the highest prescribed circling minimums for the IAP. C— The reported ceiling and visibility minimums must be equal to or greater than the highest prescribed straight-in MDA minimums for the IAP.

4628. Prior to conducting “timed approaches from a holding fix,” which one of the following is required?. A— The time required to fly from the primary facility to the field boundary must be determined by a reliable means. B— The airport where the approach is to be conducted must have a control tower in operation. C— The pilot must have established two-way communications with the tower before departing the holding fix.

4629. When making a “timed approach” from a holding fix at the outer marker, the pilot should adjust the. A— holding pattern to start the procedure turn at the assigned time. B— airspeed at the final approach fix in order to arrive at the missed approach point at the assigned time. C— holding pattern to leave the final approach fix inbound at the assigned time.

4768. Which of the following conditions is required before “timed approaches from a holding fix” may be conducted?. A— If more than one missed approach procedure is available, only one may require a course reversal. B— If more than one missed approach procedure is available, none may require a course reversal. C— Direct communication between the pilot and the tower must be established prior to beginning the approach.

4667. If an early missed approach is initiated before reaching the MAP, the following procedure should be used unless otherwise cleared by ATC. A— Proceed to the missed approach point at or above the MDA or DH before executing a turning maneuver. B— Begin a climbing turn immediately and follow missed approach procedures. C— Maintain altitude and continue past MAP for 1 minute or 1 mile whichever occurs first.

4631. If the pilot loses visual reference while circling to land from an instrument approach and ATC radar service is not available, the missed approach action should be to. A— execute a climbing turn to parallel the published final approach course and climb to the initial approach altitude. B— climb to the published circling minimums then proceed direct to the final approach fix. C— make a climbing turn toward the landing runway and continue the turn until established on the missed approach course.

4401. What does the Runway Visual Range (RVR) value, depicted on certain straight-in IAP Charts, represent?. A— The slant range distance the pilot can see down the runway while crossing the threshold on glide slope. B— The horizontal distance a pilot should see when looking down the runway from a moving aircraft. C— The slant visual range a pilot should see down the final approach and during landing.

4716. RVR minimums for landing are prescribed in an IAP, but RVR is inoperative and cannot be reported for the intended runway at the time. Which of the following would be an operational consideration?. A— RVR minimums which are specified in the procedures should be converted and applied as ground visibility. B— RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing the runway has an operative HIRL system. C— RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing all other components of the ILS system are operative.

4754. If the RVR is not reported, what meteorological value should you substitute for 2,400 RVR?. A— A ground visibility of 1/2 NM. B— A slant range visibility of 2,400 feet for the final approach segment of the published approach procedure. C— A ground visibility of 1/2 SM.

4759. The RVR minimums for takeoff or landing are published in an IAP, but RVR is inoperative and cannot be reported for the runway at the time. Which of the following would apply?. A— RVR minimums which are specified in the procedure should be converted and applied as ground visibility. B— RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing the runway has an operative HIRL system. C— RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing all other components of the ILS system are operative.

4762. If the RVR equipment is inoperative for an IAP that requires a visibility of 2,400 RVR, how should the pilot expect the visibility requirement to be reported in lieu of the published RVR?. A— As a slant range visibility of 2,400 feet. B— As an RVR of 2,400 feet. C— As a ground visibility of 1/2 SM.

4699. (Refer to Figure 133.) What action should the pilot take if the marker beacon receiver becomes inoperative during the S-ILS 9 approach at Riverside Municipal?. A— Substitute SWAN LAKE INT. for the OM and surveillance radar for the MM. B— Raise the DH 100 feet (50 feet for the OM and 50 feet for the MM). C— Substitute SWAN LAKE INT. for the OM and use published minimums.

4356. (Refer to Figure 73.) After passing the OM, Bradley Approach Control advises you that the MM on the ILS RWY 6 approach is inoperative. Under these circumstances, what adjustments, if any, are required to be made to the DH and visibility?. A— DH 424/24. B— No adjustments are required. C— DH 374/24.

4731. Which pilot action is appropriate if more than one component of an ILS is unusable?. A— Use the highest minimum required by any single component that is unusable. B— Request another approach appropriate to the equipment that is useable. C— Raise the minimums a total of that required by each component that is unusable.

4732. Which substitution is permitted when an ILS component is inoperative?. A— A compass locator or precision radar may be substituted for the ILS outer or middle marker. B— ADF or VOR bearings which cross either the outer or middle marker sites may be substituted for these markers. C— DME, when located at the localizer antenna site, should be substituted for the outer or middle marker.

4733. What facilities, if any, may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during an ILS approach without affecting the straight-in minimums?. A— ASR. B— Substitution not necessary, minimums do not change. C— Compass locator, PAR, and ASR.

4742. Which of these facilities may be substituted for an MM during a complete ILS IAP?. A— Surveillance and precision radar. B— Compass locator and precision radar. C— A VOR/DME fix.

4770. Which substitution is appropriate during an ILS approach?. A— A VOR radial crossing the outer marker site may be substituted for the outer marker. B— LOC minimums should be substituted for ILS minimums whenever the glide slope becomes inoperative. C— DME, when located at the localizer antenna site, should be substituted for either the outer or middle marker.

4706. A pilot is making an ILS approach and is past the OM to a runway which has a VASI. What action should the pilot take if an electronic glide slope malfunction occurs and the pilot has the VASI in sight?. A— The pilot should inform ATC of the malfunction and then descend immediately to the localizer DH and make a localizer approach. B— The pilot may continue the approach and use the VASI glide slope in place of the electronic glide slope. C— The pilot must request an LOC approach, and may descend below the VASI at the pilot’s discretion.

4408. The operation of an airport rotating beacon during daylight hours may indicate that. A— the in-flight visibility is less than 3 miles and the ceiling is less than 1,500 feet within Class E airspace. B— the ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet in Class B, C, or D airspace. C— an IFR clearance is required to operate within the airport traffic area.

4707. What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time?. A— Direct headwind. B— Direct tailwind. C— Light quartering tailwind.

4708. Wake turbulence is near maximum behind a jet transport just after takeoff because. A— the engines are at maximum thrust output at slow airspeed. B— the gear and flap configuration increases the turbulence to maximum. C— of the high angle of attack and high gross weight.

4709. What effect would a light crosswind of approximately 7 knots have on vortex behavior?. A— The light crosswind would rapidly dissipate vortex strength. B— The upwind vortex would tend to remain over the runway. C— The downwind vortex would tend to remain over the runway.

4710. When landing behind a large jet aircraft, at which point on the runway should you plan to land?. A— If any crosswind, land on the windward side of the runway and prior to the jet’s touchdown point. B— At least 1,000 feet beyond the jet’s touchdown point. C— Beyond the jet’s touchdown point.

4738. Under which conditions is hydroplaning most likely to occur?. A— When rudder is used for directional control instead of allowing the nosewheel to contact the surface early in the landing roll on a wet runway. B— During conditions of standing water, slush, high speed, and smooth runway texture. C— During a landing on any wet runway when brake application is delayed until a wedge of water begins to build ahead of the tires.

4076. When may a pilot cancel the IFR flight plan prior to completing the flight?. A— Any time. B— Only if an emergency occurs. C— Only in VFR conditions when not in Class A airspace.

4058. How is your flight plan closed when your destination airport has IFR conditions and there is no control tower or flight service station (FSS) on the field?. A— The ARTCC controller will close your flight plan when you report the runway in sight. B— You may close your flight plan any time after starting the approach by contacting any FSS or ATC facility. C— Upon landing, you must close your flight plan by radio or by telephone to any FSS or ATC facility.