Arrival and Approach

How can an IAF be identified on a Standard Instrument Approach Procedure (SIAP) Chart?. All fixes that are labeled IAF. N/A. N/A.

When cleared to execute a published sidestep maneuver for a specific approach and lading on the parallel runway, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?. As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight. N/A. N/A.

If an early missed approach is initiated before reaching the MAP, the following procedure should be used unless otherwise cleared by ATC. Proceed to the missed approach point at or above the MDA or DH before executing a turning maneuver. N/A. N/A.

RVR minimums for landing are prescribed in an IAP, but RVR is inoperative and cannot be reported for the intended runway at the time. Which of the following would be an operational consideration?. RVR minimums which are specified in the procedures should be converted and applied as ground visibility. N/A. N/A.

(Refer to Figure 230.) The symbol on the plan view of the VOR/DME or GPS-A procedure at 7D3 represents a minimum safe sector altitude within 25 NM of. White Cloud VOR/DME. N/A. N/A.

If the RVR is not reported, what meteorological value should you substitute for 2,400 RVR?. A ground visibility of 1/2 SM. N/A. N/A.

What does the absence of the procedure turn barb on the plan view on an approach chart indicate?. A procedure turn is not authorized. N/A. N/A.

If cleared for a straight-in LOC approach from over OADLY, it means the flight should. begin final approach without making a procedure turn. N/A. N/A.

After being handed off to the final approach controller during a ´no-gyro´ surveillance or precision approach, the pilot should make all turns. one-half standard rate. N/A. N/A.

What waypoints are designated as fly-over waypoints?. RW30. N/A. N/A.

When landing behind a large jet aircraft, at which point on the runway should you plan to land?. Beyond the jet´s touchdown point. N/A. N/A.

Aircraft approach categories are based on. 1.3 times the stall speed in landing configuration at maximum gross landing weight. N/A. N/A.

Under which conditions is hydroplaning most likely to occur?. During conditions of standing water, slush, high speed, and smooth runway texture. N/A. N/A.

What are the MDA and visibility criteria, respectively, for landing on runway 33?. 1240 feet MSL; 1 SM. N/A. N/A.

A pilot is making an ILS approach and is past the OM to a runway which has a VASI. What action is appropiate if an electronic glide slope malfunction occurs and the pilot has the VASI in sight?. The pilot may continue the approach and use the VASI glide slope in place of the electronic glide slope. N/A. N/A.

Assume this clearance is received: ´CLEARED FOR ILS RUNWAY 07 LEFT APPROACH, SIDE-STEP TO RUNWAY 07 RIGHT´. When would the pilot be expected to commence the side-step maneuver?. As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight. N/A. N/A.

What landing minimums apply for a 14 CFR Part 91 operator at Dothan, AL using a category C aircraft during a circling LOC 32 approach at 120 knots? (Dual VOR receivers available.). MDA 860 feet MSL and visibility 1 and 1/2 SM. N/A. N/A.

During the approach to DSM before you can begin the ILS RWY 13 procedure, the glide slope fails and you are cleared for the LOC RWY 13 at DSM, what altitude minimum applies?. 1,380 feet. N/A. N/A.

Which runway and landing environment lighting is available for approach and landing on RWY 6 at Bradley International?. ALSF2 and HIRL. N/A. N/A.

While executing the RNAV (GPS) RWY 18 LNAV approach at OSH, how would the missed approach point be identified?. RW18 waypoint. N/A. N/A.

On which heading should you plan to depart CURLE INT if landing Addision Airport (ADS)?. 039°. N/A. N/A.

You have been cleared for the RNAV RWY 36 approach to LIT. At ground speed of 90 knots, what are the vertical descent angle and rate of descent on final approach?. 3.0 degrees and 478 feet per minute. N/A. N/A.

During an instrument precision approach, terrain and obstacle clearance depends on adherence to. minimum altitude shown on the IAP. N/A. N/A.

What is the LPV decision altitude for the LNK RNAV (GPS) RWY 32?. 1,429 feet MSL. N/A. N/A.

What are the MDA and visibility criteria for a straight-in LOC/DME RWY 21 approach at Portland International, assuming an approach ground speed of 100 knots?. 700 feet MSL; visibility 1 SM. N/A. N/A.

What is the TDZ elevation for RWY 16R at Eugene/Mahlon Sweet Field?. 363 feet MSL. N/A. N/A.

What are the main differences between visual approach and a contact approach?. The pilot must request a contact approach; the pilot may be assigned a visual approach and higher weather minimums must exist. N/A. N/A.

Under which condition does ATC issue a STAR?. When ATC deeems it appropiate, unless the pilot requests ´No STAR´. N/A. N/A.

If the required visual references are in sight, at what point on the approach may you begin a descent below the MDA?. Upon reaching the BOS 1.2 DME. N/A. N/A.

How should the missed approach point be identified when executing the RNAV RWY 36 approach at Adams Field?. When the TO-FROM indicator changes. N/A. N/A.

If during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the approach lights are not visible upon arrival at the DH, the pilot is. required to immediately execute the missed approach procedure. N/A. N/A.

You arrive at your destination airport on an IFR flight plan. Which is a prerequisite condition for the performance of a contact approach?. Clear of clouds and at least 1 SM flight visibility. N/A. N/A.

How many precision approach procedures are published for William P Hobby (HOU) ?. 3. N/A. N/A.

What is the elevation of the DZE for RWY 4?. 44 feet MSL. N/A. N/A.

What determines the MAP on the LOC/DME RWY 21 approach at Portland International Airport?. I-GPO 1.2 DME. N/A. N/A.

You are briefing the RNAV (GPS) RWY33 approach at ADS. Where would you plan to execute the missed approach?. RW33. N/A. N/A.

Which is true regarding STARs?. STARs are established to simplify clrearance delivery procedures. N/A. N/A.

What conditions are necessary before ATC can authorize a visual approach?. You must have the airport in sight or a preceding aircraft to be followed, and be able to proceed to the airport in VFR conditions. N/A. N/A.

While flying at an assigned altitude of 5,000 feet MSL, you are cleared to CEPUL for the RNAV (GPS) - B at CQX. At what point may you leave 5,000 feet MSL?. Upon crossing CEPUL. N/A. N/A.

While being vectored, if crossing the ILS final approach course becomes course becomes imminent and an approach clearance has not been issued, what action should be taken by the pilot?. Maintain the last assigned heading and query ATC. N/A. N/A.

At which point does the BYP.BYP6 arrival begin?. At the BYP VORTAC. N/A. N/A.

What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time?. Light quartering tailwind. N/A. N/A.

Which of the following statements is true regarding Parallel ILS approaches?. Parallel ILS approaches provide aircraft a minimum of 1-1/2 miles radar separation between successiv aircraft on the adjacent localizer course. N/A. N/A.

The ILS RWY 35R procedure at APA depicts a symbol on the plan view that represents a minimum safe altitude sector within 25 NM of. CASSE NDB/LOM. N/A. N/A.

Why would the required visibility minimums for LNAV/VNAV be higher than that for LNAV alone?. The location of obstacles along the descent path. N/A. N/A.

For a stabilized approach, the aircraft would be in a configuration for approach or landing and descending at about. a descent rate of less than 1,000 fpm below 1,080 feet MSL and bank angles of less than 15 degrees below 500 feet AGL. N/A. N/A.

Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM) is. a radar system for monitoring approaches to closely spaced parallel runways. N/A. N/A.

At what point is the pilot authorized to descend to 4,700 feet when cleared to the AJCIZ waypoint from the west?. 15 NM from AJCIZ. N/A. N/A.

Wake turbulence is near maximum behind a jet transport just after takeoff because. of the high angle of attack and high gross weight. N/A. N/A.

Using an average ground speed of 90 knots, what constant rate of descent from 3,100 feet MSL at the 6 DME fix would enable the aircraft to arrive at 2,400 feet MSL at the FAF?. 350 feet per minute. N/A. N/A.

Which substitution is appropiate during an ILS approach?. LOC minimums should be substituted for ILS minimums whenever the glide slope becomes inoperative. N/A. N/A.

Refer to the DEN ILS RWY 35R procedure. The FAF intercept altitude is. 8,000. N/A. N/A.

If the RVR equipment is inoperative for an IAP that requires a visibility of 2,400 RVR, how should the pilot expect the visibility requirement to be reported in lieu of the published RVR?. As a ground visibility of 1/2 SM. N/A. N/A.

Which procedure should be followed by a pilot who is circling to land in a Category B airplane, but is maintaining a speed 5 knots faster than the maximum specified for that category?. Use the approach minimums appropiate for Category C. N/A. N/A.

What is the difference in elevation (in feet MSL) between the airport elevation and the threshold elevation?. 25 feet. N/A. N/A.

Under which condition should a missed approach procedure be initiated if the runway environment (Paso Robles Municipal Airport) is not in sight?. When you reach the established missed approach point and determine the visibility is less than 1 mile. N/A. N/A.

ATC assigns the RAL Runway 9 ILS. In the event that a missed approach is necessary, you determine you will climb with 120 knots groundspeed. What would the missed approach rate of climb be?. 540 feet per minute. N/A. N/A.

The instrument approach criteria for a Category A aircraft is based on a maximum airspeed of. 90 knots. N/A. N/A.

What effect would a light crosswind of approximately 7 knots have on vortex behavior?. The upwind vortex would tend to remain over the runway. N/A. N/A.

You may cancel an IFR flight plan. if in VMC outside class A airspace. N/A. N/A.

What does the symbol T within a black triangle in the minimums sections of the IAP for a particular airport indicate?. Takeoff minimums are not standard and/or departures are published. N/A. N/A.

What are the requirements for a contact approach to an airport that has an approved IAP, if the pilot is on an instrument flight plan clear of clouds?. The pilot must request the approach, have at least 1-mile visibility, and be reasonably sure of remaining clear of clouds. N/A. N/A.

A contact approach is an approach procedure that may be used. in lieu of conducting a SIAP. N/A. N/A.

Which aircraft approach category should be used for a circling approach for a landing on RWY28R, with an aircraft Vso of 72 knots?. B. N/A. N/A.

What is the purpose of the 10,600 MSA on the Price/Carbon County Airport Approach Chart?. It provides safe clearance above the highest obstacle in the defined sector out of 25 NM. N/A. N/A.

During a ´no-gyro´ approach and prior to being handed off to the final approach controller, the pilot should make all turns. standard rate unless otherwise advised. N/A. N/A.

What indication should you get when it is time to turn inbound while in the procedure turn at FEHXE?. 4 DME miles from FEHXE. N/A. N/A.

While being radar vectored, an approach clearance is received. The last assigned altitude should be maintained until. established on a segment of a published route or IAP. N/A. N/A.

The operation of an airport rotating beacon during daylight hours may indicate that. the ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet in Class B, C, or D airspace. N/A. N/A.

During a missed approach from the VOR/DME RWY 33L approach at BOS, what course should be flown to the missed approach holding waypoint?. 030 degrees Radial from BOS. N/A. N/A.

When DFW is landing to the north, at CURLE expect. radar vectors. N/A. N/A.

When conducting a missed approach from the LOC/DME RWY 21 approach at PDX, what is the Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA) while maneuvering between the runway and BTG VORTAC?. 3,500 feet MSL. N/A. N/A.

How do you enter the approach if the aircraft is 27 DME from the AJCIZ intersection heading 300 deg?. Begin final approach without a procedure turn. N/A. N/A.

With a ground speed of 120 knots, approximately what minimum rate of descent will be required between I-GPO 11.3 DME fix (COVDU) and the I-GPO 14.3 DME fix (YIPYU)?. 600 fpm. N/A. N/A.

What options are available concerning the teardrop course reversal for LOC RWY 18 approach to Lincoln?. If a course reversal is required, only a teardrop can be executed. N/A. N/A.

What is the landing distance available for the ILS or LOC RWY 31 at RBD?. 6,451. N/A. N/A.

Using a ground speed of 90 knots on the ILS RWY 16L final approach course, what rate of descent should be used as a reference to maintain the ILS glide slope?. 478 feet per minute. N/A. N/A.

A Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM) approach may require. monitoring of two communication frequencies simultaneously. N/A. N/A.

When are ATIS broadcasts updated?. Upon receive of any official weather, regardless of contenet change or reported values. N/A. N/A.

Refer to the DEN ILS RWY 35R procedure. The FAF intercept altitude is. 8,000 feet MSL. N/A. N/A.

When may a pilot make a straight-in landing, if using an IAP having only circling minimums?. A straight-in landing may be made if the pilot has the runway in sight in sufficient time to make a normal approach for landing, and has been cleared to land. N/A. N/A.

Which fixes on the IAP Charts are initial approach fixes?. Any fix that is identified by the letters IAF. N/A. N/A.

You have been cleared for the straight-in localizer approach for Runway 13L at DAL. Prior to reaching the final approach fix, ATC advises you the RVR is not available and that the visibility is 1/2 SM. You may. convert the RVR tot statute miles and continue the approach. N/A. N/A.

For a stabilized approach, the aircraft must be in an approved configuration for landing. with the correct speed and on glide path before descending below 1,268 feet MSL. N/A. N/A.

How can the pilot determine, for an ILS runway equipped with MALSR, that there may be penetration of the obstacle identification surfaces (OIS), and care should be taken in the visual segment to avoid any obstacles?. The published visibility for the ILS is no lower than 3/4 SM. N/A. N/A.

When the approach procedure involves a procedure turn, the maximum speed should not be greater than. 200 knots IAS. N/A. N/A.

At which point may you initiate a descent to the next lower minimum altitude when cleared for the VOR/DME RWY 36 approach, from the PUC R-009 IAF (DME operative)?. Start descent from 8900 when established on the PUC R-009 at 12 DME. N/A. N/A.

Which pilot action is appropiate if more than one component of an ILS is unusable?. Use the highest minimum required by any single component that is unusable. N/A. N/A.

What is the THRE for landing on RWY 28R?. 3,488 feet MSL. N/A. N/A.

If the pilot loses visual reference while circling to land from an instrument approach and ATC radar service is not available, the missed approach action should be to. make a climbing turn toward the landing runway and continue the turn until established on the missed approach course. N/A. N/A.

When are you required to establish communications with the tower, (Class D airspace) if you cancel your IFR flight plan 10 miles from the destination?. Before entering Class D airspace. N/A. N/A.

When simultaneous approaches are in progress, how does each pilot receive radar advisories on final?. On tower frequency. N/A. N/A.

Which navigational information and services would be available to the pilot when using the localizer frequency?. Localizer and glide slope, DME, and no voice capability. N/A. N/A.

What rate of descent should you plan to use initially to establish the glide path for the ILS or LOC RWY 33 approach at a ground speed of 120 knots?. 637 feet per minute. N/A. N/A.

How should a pilot reverse course to get established on the inbound course of the ILS RWY 9, if radar vectoring or the IAFs are not utilized?. Make an appropriate entry to the depicted pattern at EXPAM INT. N/A. N/A.

At which indication or occurrence should you initiate the published missed approach procedure for the ILS RWY 6 approach provided the runway environment is not in sight?. When reaching 373 feet MSL indicated altitude. N/A. N/A.

Where a holding pattern specified in lieu of a procedure turn, the holding maneuver must be executed within. the 1 minute time limitation or DME distance as specified in the profile view. N/A. N/A.

You have been cleared for the RNAV (GPS) RWY 36 approach to LIT. At a ground speed of 105 knots, what are the vertical descent angle and rate of descent on final approach?. 3.00 degrees and 557 feet per minute. N/A. N/A.

At which location or condition does the AUDIL.STELA1 transition begin?. AUDILE Intersection. N/A. N/A.

What does the RVR value, depicted on certain straight.in IAP Charts, represent?. The horizontal distance a pilot should see when looking down the runway from a moving aircraft. N/A. N/A.

How is ATC radar used for instrument approaches when the facility is approved for approach control service?. Course guidance to the final approach course, ASR and PAR approaches, and the monitoring of nonradar approaches. N/A. N/A.

Approachinf DFW from Abilene, which frequencies should you expect to use for Regional Approach Control, Control Tower, and Ground Control respectively?. 119.87; 124.15; 121.85. N/A. N/A.

If your aircraft was cleared for the ILS RWY 18 at Lincoln Municipal and crossed the Lincoln VOR at 5,000 feet MSL, at what point in the teardrop could a descent to 3,200 feet commence?. Immediately. N/A. N/A.

During the ILS RWY 30R procedure at DSM, the minimum altitude for glide slope interception is. 2,400 feet MSL. N/A. N/A.

At which point does the JEN.JEN9 arrival begin?. JEN intersection. N/A. N/A.

If cleared for an S-LOC 18 approach at Lincoln Municipal from over HUSKR, it means the flight should. begin final approach without making procedure turn. N/A. N/A.

During an instrument approach, under what conditions, if any, is the holding pattern course reversal not required?. When radar vectors are provided. N/A. N/A.

What is the rule for a pilot receiving a ´Land and Hold Short Operation´ (LAHSO) clearance?. The pilot has the option to accept or reject all LAHSO clearances regardless of the meteorological conditions. N/A. N/A.

What is the touchdown zone elevation for RWY 6?. 173 feet MSL. N/A. N/A.

Immediately after passing the final approach fix inbound during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the glide slope warning flag appears. The pilot is. permitted to continue the approach and descend to the localizer MDA. N/A. N/A.

What is the minimum altitude at which you should intercept the glide slope on the ILS RWY 6 approach procedure?. 1,800 feet MSL. N/A. N/A.

What is the minimum altitude descent procedure if cleared for th S-ILS 9 approach from Seal Beach VORTAC?. Descend and maintain 3,000 to JASER INT, descend to 2,500 while established on the LOC course inbound and intercept the glide slope at 2,500 feet crossing EXPAM. N/A. N/A.

When being radar vectored for an ILS approach, at what point may you start a descent from your last assigned altitude to a lower minimum altitude if cleared for the approach?. When established on a segment of a published route or IAP. N/A. N/A.

On what frequency should you expect to contact Regional Approach Control while flying the ILS or LOC Y RWY 13L approach to DAL?. 124.3. N/A. N/A.

With winds reported as from 330 degrees at 4 knots, you are given instructions to taxi to runway 4 for departure and to expect takeoff after an airliner departs from Runway 29. What effect would you expect from that airliner´s vortices?. The upwind vortex would tend to remain over the runway. N/A. N/A.

You have been cleared to the CREAK intersection via the BTG 054° radial at 7,000 feet. Approaching CREAK, you are cleared for the LOC/DME RWY 21 approach to PDX. Descent to procedure turn altitude should not begin priot to. CREAK outbound. N/A. N/A.

The final approach fix for the precision approach is located at. Glide slope intercept (lighting bolt). N/A. N/A.

If you do not see the required references on an ILS approach, you must execute the missed approach procedure no later than. decision altitude. N/A. N/A.

Using an average ground speed of 90 knots on the final approach segment, what rate of descent should be used initially to establish the glidepath for the ILS RWy 6 approach procedure?. 480 feet per minute. N/A. N/A.

When you obtain a contact approach?. ATC will asign a contact approach only upon request if the reported visibility is at least 1 mile. N/A. N/A.

Using a ground speed of 90 knots on the ILS final approach course, what rate descent should be used as a reference to maintain the ILS glide slope?. 478 feet per minute. N/A. N/A.

What is the usable runway length for landing on Runway 21 at PDX?. 5,957 feet. N/A. N/A.

Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast specifically implies that. the ceiling is more than 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more. N/A. N/A.

The RVR minimums for takeoff or landing are published in an IAP, but RVR is inoperative and cannot be reported for the runway at the time. Which of the following would apply?. RVR minimums which are specified in the procedure should be converted and applied as ground visibility. N/A. N/A.

What is the minimum altitude to cross CLAMM intersection while conducting the RNAV (GPS) RWy 6 approach at ROA?. 4,300 MSL. N/A. N/A.

You have not yet been cleared for the approach, but you are being vectored to the ILS approach course. It is clear that you will pass through the localizer course unless you take action. You should. continue as assigned and query ATC. N/A. N/A.