CC 51-100

Which three statements about MAC addresses are correct? (Choose three.). To communicate with other devices on a network, a network device must have a unique MAC address. The MAC address is also referred to as the IP address. The MAC address of a device must be configured in the Cisco IOS CLI by a user with administrative privileges. A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the manufacturer of the hardware and the second of which uniquely identifies the hardware. An example of a MAC address is 0A:26:B8:D6:65:90. A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the network on which the host resides and the second of which uniquely identifies the host on the network.

Which technique can you use to route IPv6 traffic over an IPv4 infrastructure?. NAT. 6 to 4 tunneling. L2TPv3. dual-stack.

Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this design?. This design will function as intended. Spanning-tree will need to be used. The router will not accept the addressing scheme. The connection between switches should be a trunk. The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol.

Which two statements are true about the command ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4? (Choose two.). It establishes a static route to the 172.16.3.0 network. It establishes a static route to the 192.168.2.0 network. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination to the 172.16.3.0 network. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination out the interface with the address 192.168.2.4. It uses the default administrative distance. It is a route that would be used last if other routes to the same destination exist.

What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.). They are routed the same as public IP addresses. They are less costly than public IP addresses. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts.

What are two benefits that the UDP protocol provide for application traffic? (Choose two.). UDP traffic has lower overhead than TCP traffic. UDP provides a built-in recovery mechanism to retransmit lost packets. The CTL field in the UDP packet header enables a three-way handshake to establish the connection. UDP maintains the connection state to provide more stable connections than TCP. The application can use checksums to verify the integrity of application data.

Which two goals reasons to implement private IPv4 addressing on your network? (Choose two.). Comply with PCI regulations. Conserve IPv4 address. Reduce the size of the forwarding table on network routers. Reduce the risk of a network security breach. Comply with local law.

Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office / home office architecture?. broadband cable access. frame-relay packet switching. dedicated point-to-point leased line. Integrated Services Digital Network switching.

Which two WAN architecture options help a business scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two.). asychronous routing. single-homed branches. dual-homed branches. static routing. dynamic routing.

What is the binary pattern of unique ipv6 unique local address?. 00000000. 11111100. 11111111. 11111101.

Which two options are the best reasons to use an IPV4 private IP space? (Choose two.). to enable intra-enterprise communication. to implement NAT. to connect applications. to conserve global address space. to manage routing overhead.

Refer to the exhibit. When PC1 sends a packet to PC2, the packet has which source and destination IP address when it arrives at interface Gi0/0 on router R2?. source 192.168.10.10 and destination 10.10.2.2. source 192.168.20.10 and destination 192.168.20.1. source 192.168.10.10 and destination 192.168.20.10. source 10.10.1.1 and destination 10.10.2.2.

What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules?. They support an inline optical attenuator to enhance signal strength. They accommodate single-mode and multi-mode in a single module. They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable. They offer reliable bandwidth up to 100 Mbps in half duplex mode.

What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two.). handles requests from multiple workstations at the same time. achieves redundancy by exclusively using virtual server clustering. housed solely in a data center that is dedicated to a single client achieves redundancy by exclusively using virtual server clustering. runs the same operating system in order to communicate with other servers. runs applications that send and retrieve data for workstations that make requests.

Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture?. enforcing routing policies. marking interesting traffic for data policies. applying security policies. attaching users to the edge of the network.

What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device?. to transmit wireless traffic between hosts. to analyze traffic and drop unauthorized traffic from the Internet. to forward traffic within the same broadcast domain. to pass traffic between different networks.

Which two functions are performed by the core layer in a three-tier architecture? (Choose two.). Provide uninterrupted forwarding service. Inspect packets for malicious activity. Ensure timely data transfer between layers. Provide direct connectivity for end user devices. Police traffic that is sent to the edge of the network.

What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestion while installing access points that use the 2.4 GHz frequency?. different nonoverlapping channels. one overlapping channel. one nonoverlapping channel. different overlapping channels.

A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models are used so employees do not have to waste their time installing, managing, and updating software that is only used occasionally. Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend?. infrastructure-as-a-service. platform-as-a-service. business process as service to support different types of service. software-as-a-service.

What are two functions of a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.). acts as a central point for association and authentication servers. selects the best route between networks on a WAN. moves packets within a VLAN. moves packets between different VLANs. makes forwarding decisions based on the MAC address of a packet.

DRAG DROP - Drag and drop the TCP/IP protocols from the left onto their primary transmission protocols on the right. Select and Place: DNS. HTTP. RTP. SMTP. SNMP. Telnet.

An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GHz access points?. Client Band Select. Re-Anchor Roamed Clients. OEAP Spilt Tunnel. 11ac MU-MIMO.

Which networking function occurs on the data plane?. processing inbound SSH management traffic. sending and receiving OSPF Hello packets. facilitates spanning-tree elections. forwarding remote client/server traffic.

Under which condition is TCP preferred over UDP?. UDP is used when low latency is optimal, and TCP is used when latency is tolerable. TCP is used when dropped data is more acceptable, and UDP is used when data is accepted out-of-order. TCP is used when data reliability is critical, and UDP is used when missing packets are acceptable. UDP is used when data is highly interactive, and TCP is used when data is time-sensitive.

Refer to the exhibit. Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new single-mode fiber path, users at SiteA report intermittent connectivity issues with applications hosted at SiteB. What is the cause of the intermittent connectivity issue?. Interface errors are incrementing. High usage is causing high latency. An incorrect SFP media type was used at SiteA. The sites were connected with the wrong cable type.

A network engineer must configure the router R1 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface to connect to the router R2 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface. For the configuration to be applied, the engineer must compress the address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0500:000a:400F:583B. Which command must be issued on the interface?. ipv6 address 2001::db8:0000::500:a:400F:583B. ipv6 address 2001:db8:0::500:a:4F:583B. ipv6 address 2001:db8::500:a:400F:583B. ipv6 address 2001:0db8::5:a:4F:583B.

What is a network appliance that checks the state of a packet to determine whether the packet is legitimate?. Layer 2 switch. LAN controller. load balancer. firewall.

What is a role of access points in an enterprise network?. integrate with SNMP in preventing DDoS attacks. serve as a first line of defense in an enterprise network. connect wireless devices to a wired network. support secure user logins to devices on the network.

An implementer is preparing hardware for virtualization to create virtual machines on a host. What is needed to provide communication between hardware and virtual machines?. router. hypervisor. switch. straight cable.

How does a Cisco Unified Wireless Network respond to Wi-Fi channel overlap?. It allows the administrator to assign the channels on a per-device or per-interface basis. It segregates devices from different manufactures onto different channels. It analyzes client load and background noise and dynamically assigns a channel. It alternates automatically between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz on adjacent access points.

In which situation is private IPv4 addressing appropriate for a new subnet on the network of an organization?. The network has multiple endpoint listeners, and it is desired to limit the number of broadcasts. The ISP requires the new subnet to be advertised to the Internet for web services. There is limited unique address space, and traffic on the new subnet will stay local within the organization. Traffic on the subnet must traverse a site-to-site VPN to an outside organization.

DRAG DROP - Drag and drop the characteristics of network architectures from the left onto the type of architecture on the right. Select and Place: Single device handles the core and the distribution layer. more cost-effective than other options. most appropriate for small network designs. enhances network availability. separate devices handles the core and the distribution layer.

Which 802.11 frame type is indicated by a probe response after a client sends a probe request?. data. management. control. action.

What is the difference in data transmission delivery and reliability between TCP and UDP?. TCP transmits data at a higher rate and ensures packet delivery. UDP retransmits lost data to ensure applications receive the data on the remote end. TCP requires the connection to be established before transmitting data. UDP transmits data at a higher rate without ensuring packet delivery. UDP sets up a connection between both devices before transmitting data. TCP uses the three-way handshake to transmit data with a reliable connection. UDP is used for multicast and broadcast communication. TCP is used for unicast communication and transmits data at a higher rate with error checking.

Refer to the exhibit. When PC-A sends traffic to PC-B, which network component is in charge of receiving the packet from PC-A, verifying the IP addresses, and forwarding the packet to PC-B?. router. Layer 2 switch. load balancer. firewall.

What is the maximum bandwidth of a T1 point-to-point connection?. 1.544 Mbps. 2.048 Mbps. 34.368 Mbps. 43.7 Mbps.

What are two similarities between UTP Cat 5e and Cat 6a cabling? (Choose two.). Both support speeds up to 10 Gigabit. Both support speeds of at least 1 Gigabit. Both support runs of up to 55 meters. Both support runs of up to 100 meters. Both operate at a frequency of 500 MHz.

What is a characteristic of cloud-based network topology?. onsite network services are provided with physical Layer 2 and Layer 3 components. wireless connections provide the sole access method to services. physical workstations are configured to share resources. services are provided by a public, private, or hybrid deployment.

Which network action occurs within the data plane?. reply to an incoming ICMP echo request. make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC. run routing protocols (OSPF, EIGRP, RIP, BGP). compare the destination IP address to the IP routing table.

Refer to the exhibit. R1 has just received a packet from host A that is destined to host B. Which route in the routing table is used by R1 to reach host B?. 10.10.13.0/25 [1/0] via 10.10.10.2. 10.10.13.0/25 [108/0] via 10.10.10.10. 10.10.13.0/25 [110/2] via 10.10.10.6. 10.10.13.0/25 [110/2] via 10.10.10.2.

Which two network actions occur within the data plane? (Choose two.). Run routing protocols. Make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC. Add or remove an 802.1Q trunking header. Match the destination MAC address to the MAC address table. Reply to an incoming ICMP echo request.

What are network endpoints?. support inter-VLAN connectivity. a threat to the network if they are compromised. act as routers to connect a user to the service provider network. enforce policies for campus-wide traffic going to the Internet.

Refer to the exhibit. The link between PC1 and the switch is up, but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?. There is an issue with the fiber on the switch interface. There is a duplex mismatch on the interface. There is an interface type mismatch. There is a speed mismatch on the interface.

Why was the RFC 1918 address space defined?. conserve public IPv4 addressing. support the NAT protocol. preserve public IPv6 address space. reduce instances of overlapping IP addresses.

DRAG DROP - Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right. Select and Place: transmitted based on data contained in the packet without the need for a data channel. requires the client and the server to establish a connection before sending the packet. provides best-effort service. supports reliable data transmission.

DRAG DROP - Drag and drop the IPv6 addresses from the left onto the corresponding address types on the right. Select and Place: 2001:db8:600:cafe::123. fcba:926a:e8e:7a25:b1:c7d2:1a76:8dfc. fd6d:c83b:5cef:b6b2::1. 3ffe:e54d:620:a87a::f00d.

Which type of organization should use a collapsed-core architecture?. small and needs to reduce networking costs. large and must minimize downtime when hardware fails. large and requires a flexible, scalable network design. currently small but is expected to grow dramatically in the near future.

A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network using the 64-bit address 2001:0EB8:00C1:2200:0001:0000:0000:0331/64. To simplify the configuration, the administrator has decided to compress the address. Which IP address must the administrator configure?. ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:22:1::331/64. ipv6 address 21:EB8:C1:2200:1::331/64. ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:2200:1:0000:331/64. ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:2200:1::331/64.

DRAG DROP - Drag and drop the IPv6 addresses from the left onto the corresponding address types on the right. Select and Place: fe80::a00:27ff:feeb:89aa. 3ffe:e54d:620:a87a::f00d. ff05::1:3. 2001:db8:600d:cafe::123.

What is an appropriate use for private IPv4 addressing?. to allow hosts inside to communicate in both directions with hosts outside the organization. on internal hosts that stream data solely to external resources. on the public-facing interface of a firewall. on hosts that communicate only with other internal hosts.