CCNA 201 - 300

A network engineer must create a diagram of a multivendor network. Which command must be configured on the Cisco devices so that the topology of the network can be mapped?. Device(Config)#lldp run. Device(Config)#cdp run. Device(Config-if)#cdp enable. Device(Config)#flow-sampler-map topology.

What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two). The core and distribution layers perform the same functions. The access layer manages routing between devices in different domains. The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail. The core layer maintains wired connections for each host. The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies.

What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?. The seventh bit of the original MAC address of the interface is inverted. The interface ID is configured as a random 64-bit value. The characters FE80 are inserted at the beginning of the MAC address of the interface. The MAC address of the interface is used as the interface ID without modification.

Which function does an SNMP agent perform?. it sends information about MIB variables in response to requests from the NMS. it coordinates user authentication between a network device and a TACACS+ or RADIUS server. it requests information from remote network nodes about catastrophic system events. it manages routing between Layer 3 devices in a network.

R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed?. route with the lowest cost. route with the next hop that has the highest IP. route with the shortest prefix length. route with the lowest administrative distance.

What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture?. Each device is separated by the same number of hops. It provides variable latency. It provides greater predictability on STP blocked ports. Each link between leaf switches allows for higher bandwidth.

Which action must be taken to assign a global unicast IPv6 address on an interface that is derived from the MAC address of that interface?. configure a stateful DHCPv6 server on the network. enable SLAAC on an interface. disable the EUI-64 bit process. explicitly assign a link-local address.

Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is running three different routing protocols. Which route characteristic is used by the router to forward the packet that it receives for destination IP 172.16.32.1?. longest prefix. metric. cost. administrative distance.

Router R1 must send all traffic without a matching routing-table entry to 192.168.1.1. Which configuration accomplishes this task?. R1#Config t R1(config)#ip routing R1(config)#ip route default-route 192.168.1.1. R1#Config t R1(config)#ip routing R1(config)#ip route 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0. R1#Config t R1(config)#ip routing R1(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1. R1#Config t R1(config)#ip routing R1(config)#ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1.

Which WPA3 enhancement protects against hackers viewing traffic on the Wi-Fi network?. TKiP encryption. AES encryption. scrambled encryption key. SAE encryption.

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on the Gi0/1 interface of Router1 The new circuit uses eBGP and teams the route to VLAN25 from the BGP path. What s the expected behavior for the traffic flow for route 10.10.13.0/25?. Traffic to 10.10.13.0.25 is load balanced out of multiple interfaces. Route 10.10.13.0/25 is updated in the routing table as being learned from interface Gi0/1. Traffic to 10.10.13.0/25 is asymmeteical. Route 10.10.13.0/25 learned via the Gi0/0 interface remains in the routing table.

Refer to the exhibit. How does router R1 handle traffic to 192.168.10.16?. It selects the IS-IS route because it has the shortest prefix inclusive of the destination address. It selects the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance. It selects the OSPF route because it has the lowest cost. It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands were used to create port channel 10? (Choose two ). int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode active. int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode desirable. int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode passive. int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode auto. int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode on.

What is a difference between RADIUS and TACACS+?. RADIUS is most appropriate for dial authentication, but TACACS+ can be used for multiple types of authentication. TACACS+ encrypts only password information and RADIUS encrypts the entire payload. TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization, and RADIUS merges them. RADIUS logs all commands that are entered by the administrator, but TACACS+ logs only start, stop, and interim commands.

Refer to the exhibit. How does the router manage traffic to 192.168.12.16?. It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address. It chooses the OSPF route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address. It load-balances traffic between all three routes. It chooses the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance.

What is an advantage of Cisco DNA Center versus traditional campus device management?. It supports numerous extensibility options including cross-domain adapters and third-party SDKs. It supports high availability for management functions when operating in cluster mode. It enables easy autodiscovery of network elements m a brownfield deployment. It is designed primarily to provide network assurance.

While examining excessive traffic on the network, it is noted that all incoming packets on an interface appear to be allowed even though an IPv4 ACL is applied to the interface. Which two misconfigurations cause this behavior? (Choose two). The packets fail to match any permit statement. A matching permit statement is too high in the access test. A matching permit statement is too broadly defined. The ACL is empty. A matching deny statement is too high in the access list.

How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?. Cisco DNA Center device management can deploy a network more quickly than traditional campus device management. Traditional campus device management allows a network to scale more quickly than with Cisco DNA Center device management. Cisco DNA Center device management can be implemented at a lower cost than most traditional campus device management options. Traditional campus device management schemes can typically deploy patches and updates more quickly than Cisco DNA Center device management.

How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services and access control?. Authorization provides access control and authentication tracks user services. Authentication identifies users and accounting tracks user services. Accounting tracks user services, and authentication provides access control. Authorization identifies users and authentication provides access control.

What is a difference between local AP mode and FiexConnet AP mode?. Local AP mode creates two CAPWAP tunnels per AP to the WLC. FiexConnect AP mode fails to function if me AP loses connectivity with the WLC. FlexConnect AP mode bridges the traffic from the AP to the WLC when local switching is configured. Local AP mode causes the AP to behave as if it were an autonomous AP.

Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?. allows multiple companies to each use the same addresses without conflicts. provides a direct connection for hosts from outside of the enterprise network. ensures that NAT is not required to reach the internet with private range addressing. enables secure communications to the internet for all external hosts.

What event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?. A TCP connection has been torn down. An ICMP connection has been built. An interface line has changed status. A certificate has expired.

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator configures four switches for local authentication using passwords that are stored in a cryptographic hash. The four switches must also support SSH access for administrators to manage the network infrastructure. Which switch is configured correctly to meet these requirements?. SW1. SW2. SW3. SW4.

What are two fundamentals of virtualization? (choose two). The environment must be configured with one hypervisor that serves solely as a network manager to monitor SNMP traffic. It allows logical network devices to move traffic between virtual machines and the rest of the physical network. It allows multiple operating systems and applications to run independently on one physical server. It allows a physical router to directly connect NICs from each virtual machine into the network. It requires that some servers, virtual machines and network gear reside on the Internet.

Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions should be made about this configuration? (Choose two). The designated port is FastEthernet 2/1. This is a root bridge. The spanning-tree mode is Rapid PVST+. The spanning-tree mode is PVST+. The root port is FastEthernet 2/1.

Refer to the exhibit. A router reserved these five routes from different routing information sources. Which two routes does the router install in its routing table? (Choose two). RIP route 10.0.0.0/30. iBGP route 10.0.0.0/30. OSPF route 10.0.0.0/30. EIGRP route 10.0.0.1/32. OSPF route 10.0.0.0/16.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants VLAN 67 traffic to be untagged between Switch 1 and Switch 2 while all other VLANs are to remain tagged. Which command accomplishes this task?. switchport access vlan 67. switchport trunk allowed vlan 67. switchport private-vlan association host 67. switchport trunk native vlan 67.

What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two). Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber. A BNC connector is used for fiber connections. The glass core component is encased in a cladding. Fiber connects to physical interfaces using Rj-45 connections. The data can pass through the cladding.

Which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active interface to enable OSPFv2 to operate? (Choose two). OSPF area. OSPF MD5 authentication key. iPv6 address. OSPf process ID. OSPf stub flag.

Refer to the exhibit. Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. what is the reason for the problem?. The OSPF router IDs are mismatched. Router2 is using the default hello timer. The network statement on Router1 is misconfigured. The OSPF process IDs are mismatched.

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets?. TCP is a connectionless protocol that does not provide reliable delivery of data, UDP is a connection-oriented protocol that uses sequencing to provide reliable delivery. TCP does not guarantee delivery or error checking to ensure that there is no corruption of data UDP provides message acknowledgement and retransmits data if lost. TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once, UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking for sequencing. TCP uses windowing to deliver packets reliably; UDP provides reliable message transfer between hosts by establishing a three-way handshake.

A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. Which static route does the router choose to forward the packet?. ip route 10.10.1.0 255.255.255.240 10.10.255.1. ip route 10.10.1.16 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1. ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1. ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.254 10.10.255.1.

Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 Fa0/0 cannot ping router R3 Fa0/1. Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?. set the default network as 20.20.20.0/24. set the default gateway as 20.20.20.2. configure a static route with Fa0/1 as the egress interface to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network. configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network.

Refer to the exhibit. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will add 20 users to the network. Which IPv4 network and subnet mask combination does the engineer assign to minimize wasting addresses?. 10.10.225.48 255.255.255.240. 10.10.225.32 255.255.255.240. 10.10.225.48 255.255.255.224. 10.10.225.32 255.255.255.224.

A corporate office uses four floors in a building * Floor 1 has 24 users * Floor 2 has 29 users * Floor 3 has 28 users * Floor 4 has 22 users Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration?. 192.168.0.0/26 as summary and 192.168.0.0/29 for each floor. 192.168.0.0.24 as summary and 192.168.0.0/28 for each floor. 192.168.0.0/23 as summary and 192.168.0.0/25 for each floor. 192.168.0.0/25 as summary and 192.168.0.0/27 for each floor.

By default, how Does EIGRP determine the metric of a route for the routing table?. it uses the bandwidth and delay values of the path to calculate the route metric. it uses a default metric of 10 for all routes that are learned by the router. it uses a reference Bandwidth and the actual bandwidth of the connected link to calculate the route metric. it counts the number of hops between the receiving and destination routers and uses that value as the metric.

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration issue is preventing the OSPF neighbor relationship from being established between the two routers?. R2 is using the passive-interface default command. R1 has an incorrect network command for interface Gi1/0. R2 should have its network command in area 1. R1 interface Gi1/0 has a larger MTU size.

What are two roles of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)? (Choose two). The DHCP server offers the ability to exclude specific IP addresses from a pool of IP addresses. The DHCP client can request up to four DNS server addresses. The DHCP server assigns IP addresses without requiring the client to renew them. The DHCP server leases client IP addresses dynamically. The DHCP client maintains a pool of IP addresses it can assign.

How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC?. The access point must directly connect to the WLC using a copper cable. The access point must not be connected to the wired network, as it would create a loop. The access point must be connected to the same switch as the WLC. The access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network, assuming connectivity to the WLC.

Refer to the exhibit. Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface?. The frame is processed in VLAN 5. The frame is processed in VLAN 11. The frame is processed in VLAN 1. The frame is dropped.

What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating state route? (Choose two). to automatically route traffic on a secondary path when the primary path goes down. to route traffic differently based on the source IP of the packet. to enable fallback static routing when the dynamic routing protocol fails. to support load balancing via static routing. to control the return path of traffic that is sent from the router.

Refer to the exhibit. Which route type is configured to reach the internet?. floating static route. host route. default route. network route.

How does Cisco DNA Center gather data from the network?. Network devices use different services like SNMP, syslog, and streaming telemetry to send data to the controlle. Devices establish an iPsec tunnel to exchange data with the controller. Devices use the call-home protocol to periodically send data to the controller. The Cisco CU Analyzer tool gathers data from each licensed network device and streams it to the controller.

What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?. TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol. TCP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol. TCP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protoco. TCP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protoco.

Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two standard designs are recommended? (Choose two.). 5GHz provides increased network capacity with up to 23 nonoverlapping channels. 5GHz channel selection requires an autonomous access point. Cells that overlap one another are configured to use nonoverlapping channels. Adjacent cells with overlapping channels use a repeater access point. For maximum throughput, the WLC is configured to dynamically set adjacent access points to the channel.

The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this configuration?. restricts unauthorized users from viewing clear-text passwords in the running configuration. prevents network administrators from configuring clear-text passwords. protects the VLAN database from unauthorized PC connections on the switch. encrypts the password exchange when a VPN tunnel is established.

Which type of ipv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as ipv4 public addresses?. multicast. unique local. link-local. global unicast.

Which two statements are true about the command ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4? (Choose two.). It establishes a static route to the 172.16.3.0 network. It establishes a static route to the 192.168.2.0 network. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination to the 172.16.3.0 network. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination out the interface with the address 192.168.2.4. It uses the default administrative distance. It is a route that would be used last if other routes to the same destination exist.

Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.). A new switch has no VLANs configured. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device. VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains. Each VLAN uses a separate address space. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN. VLANs cannot span multiple switches.

Refer to the exhibit. To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165?. Router2. Router3. Router4. Router5.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands were used to create port channel 10? (Choose two.). int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode active. int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode desirable. int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode passive. int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode auto. int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode on.

What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.). exactly one active router. one or more standby routers. one or more backup virtual routers. exactly one standby active router. exactly one backup virtual router.

What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding?. Frames are sent to all ports, including those that are assigned to other VLANs. Frames are sent to every port on the switch that has a matching entry in MAC address table. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN except from the originating port. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN.

If all OSPF routers in a single area are configured with the same priority value, what value does a router use for the OSPF router ID in the absence of a loopback interface?. the IP address of the first Fast Ethernet interface. the IP address of the console management interface. the highest IP address among its active interfaces. the lowest IP address among its active interfaces. the priority value until a loopback interface is configured.

Which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast address rather than a unicast address?. 2000::/3. FC00::/7. FE80::/10. FF00::/12.

The OSPF Hello protocol performs which of the following tasks? (Choose two.). It negotiates correctness parameters between neighboring interfaces. It broadcasts hello packets throughout the internetwork to discover all routers that are running OSP. It provides dynamic neighbor discovery. It detects unreachable neighbors in 90 second intervals. It uses timers to elect the router with the fastest links as the designated router. . It maintains neighbor relationships.

What are two benefits of using VTP in a switching environment? (Choose two.). It allows switches to read frame tags. It allows ports to be assigned to VLANs automatically. It maintains VLAN consistency across a switched network. It allows frames from multiple VLANs to use a single interface. It allows VLAN information to be automatically propagated throughout the switching environment.

Which purpose does a northbound API serve in a controller-based networking architecture?. communicates between the controller and the physical network hardware. reports device errors to a controller. generates statistics for network hardware and traffic. facilitates communication between the controller and the applications.

The OSPF Hello protocol performs which of the following tasks? (Choose two.). It provides dynamic neighbor discovery. It detects unreachable neighbors in 90 second intervals. It maintains neighbor relationships. It negotiates correctness parameters between neighboring interfaces. It uses timers to elect the router with the fastest links as the designated router. It broadcasts hello packets throughout the internetwork to discover all routers that are running OSPF.

What are two reasons a network administrator would use CDP? (Choose two.). to verify the type of cable interconnecting two devices. to determine the status of network services on a remote device. to obtain VLAN information from directly connected switches. to verify Layer 2 connectivity between two devices when Layer 3 fails. to obtain the IP address of a connected device in order to telnet to the device. to determine the status of the routing protocols between directly connected routers.

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is tasked with configuring a voice VLAN. What is the expected outcome when a Cisco phone is connected to the GigabitEthernet 3/1/4 port on a switch?. The phone and a workstation that is connected to the phone do not have VLAN connectivity. The phone sends and receives data in VLAN 50, but a workstation connected to the phone sends and receives data in VLAN 1. The phone sends and receives data in VLAN 50, but a workstation connected to the phone has no VLAN connected. The phone and a workstation that is connected to the phone send and receive data in VLAN 50.

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer deploys a topology in which R1 obtains its IP configuration from DHCP. If the switch and DHCP server configurations are complete and correct. Which two sets of commands must be configured on R1 and R2 to complete the task? (Choose two). R1(config)# interface fa0/0 R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 198.51.100.100. R2(config)# interface gi0/0 R2(config-if)# ip helper-address 198.51.100.100. R1(config)# interface fa0/0 R1(config-if)# ip address dhcp R1(config-if)# no shutdown. R2(config)# interface gi0/0 R2(config-if)# ip address dhcp. R1(config)# interface fa0/0 R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 192.0.2.2.

Refer to the exhibit. What commands are needed to add a subinterface to Ethernet0/0 on R1 to allow for VLAN 20, with IP address 10.20.20.1/24?. R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0 R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0. R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20 R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0. R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0. R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0.

On a corporate network, hosts on the same VLAN can communicate with each other, but they are unable to communicate with hosts on different VLANs. What is needed to allow communication between the VLANs?. a router with subinterfaces configured on the physical interface that is connected to the switch. a router with an IP address on the physical interface connected to the switch. a switch with an access link that is configured between the switches. a switch with a trunk link that is configured between the switches.

Which command can you enter to determine the addresses that have been assigned on a DHCP Server?. Show ip DHCP database. Show ip DHCP pool. Show ip DHCP binding. Show ip DHCP server statistic.

Refer to the exhibit. If the network environment is operating normally, which type of device must be connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1?. DHCP client. access point. router. PC.

Refer to the exhibit. What configuration on RTR-1 denies SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?. access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 22 access-list 100 permit ip any any. interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip access-group 100 in access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 22 access-list 100 permit ip any any. line vty 0 15 access-class 100 in access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 23 access-list 100 permit ip any any. interface Gigabit Ethernet0/0 ip access-group 100 in access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 23 access-list 100 permit ip any any line vty 0 15 access-class 100 in.

Which function dose the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?. allow multiple companies to each use the same address without conflicts. provides a direct connection for hosts from outside of the enterprise network. ensues that NAT is not required to reach the internet with private range addressing. enable secure communications to the internet for all external hosts.

Which type of API would be used to allow authorized salespeople of an organization access to internal sales data from their mobile devices?. partner. open. public. private.

What is a characteristic of the REST API?. evolved into what became SOAP. used for exchanging XML structured information over HTTP or SMTP. considered slow, complex, and rigid. most widely used API for web services.

What is the name of the layer in the Cisco borderless switched network design that is considered to be the backbone used for high-speed connectivity and fault isolation?. data link. access. core. network. network access.

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator configures the following ACL in order to prevent devices on the 192.168.1.0 subnet from accessing the server at 10.1.1.5: access-list 100 deny ip 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 host 10.1.1.5 access-list 100 permit ip any any Where should the administrator place this ACL for the most efficient use of network resources?. inbound on router A Fa0/0. outbound on router B Fa0/0. outbound on router A Fa0/1. inbound on router B Fa0/1.

Which step in the link-state routing process is described by a router sending Hello packets out all of the OSPF-enabled interfaces?. electing the designated router. establishing neighbor adjacencies. injecting the default route. exchanging link-state advertisements.

Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is configured with static NAT. Addressing on the router and the web server are correctly configured, but there is no connectivity between the web server and users on the Internet. What is a possible reason for this lack of connectivity?. The router NAT configuration has an incorrect inside local address. The inside global address is incorrect. The NAT configuration on interface S0/0/1 is incorrect. Interface Fa0/0 should be configured with the command ip nat outside.

Anycompany has decided to reduce its environmental footprint by reducing energy costs, moving to a smaller facility, and promoting telecommuting. What service or technology would support this requirement?. Cisco ACI. cloud services. APIC-EM. data center.

A company needs to interconnect several branch offices across a metropolitan area. The network engineer is seeking a solution that provides high-speed converged traffic, including voice, video, and data on the same network infrastructure. The company also wants easy integration to their existing LAN infrastructure in their office locations. Which technology should be recommended?. VSAT. ISDN. Frame Relay. Ethernet WAN.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two configurations would be used to create and apply a standard access list on R1, so that only the 10.0.70.0/25 network devices are allowed to access the internal database server? (Choose two.). R1(config)# interface GigabitEthernet0/0 R1(config-if)# ip access-group 5 out. R1(config)# access-list 5 permit 10.0.54.0 0.0.1.255. R1(config)# interface Serial0/0/0 R1(config-if)# ip access-group 5 in. R1(config)# access-list 5 permit 10.0.70.0 0.0.0.127. R1(config)# access-list 5 permit any.

Which type of VPN uses a hub-and-spoke configuration to establish a full mesh topology?. GRE over IPsec. dynamic multipoint VPN. MPLS VPN. IPsec virtual tunnel interface.

What are two purposes of launching a reconnaissance attack on a network? (Choose two.). to prevent other users from accessing the system. to escalate access privileges. to gather information about the network and devices. to scan for accessibility. to retrieve and modify data.

Refer to the exhibit. If the switch reboots and all routers have to re-establish OSPF adjacencies, which routers will become the new DR and BDR?. Router R3 will become the DR and router R1 will become the BDR. Router R4 will become the DR and router R3 will become the BDR. Router R1 will become the DR and router R2 will become the BDR. Router R3 will become the DR and router R2 will become the BDR.

The SW1 interface g0/1 is in the down/down state. Which two configurations are valid reasons for the interface conditions?(choose two). There is a duplex mismatch. There is a speed mismatch. There is a protocol mismatch. The interface is shut down. The interface is error-disabled.

In which two ways does a password manager reduce the chance of a hacker stealing a users password?(Choose two.). It automatically provides a second authentication factor that is unknown to the original user. It uses an internal firewall to protect the password repository from unauthorized access. It protects against keystroke logging on a compromised device or web site. It stores the password repository on the local workstation with built-in antivirus and anti-malware functionality. It encourages users to create stronger passwords.

What is the primary purpose of a First Hop Redundancy Protocol?. It allows directly connected neighbors to share configuration information. It allows a router to use bridge priorities to create multiple loop-free paths to a single destination. It reduces routing failures by allowing Layer 3 load balancing between OSPF neighbors that have the same link metric. It reduces routing failures by allowing more than one router to represent itself, as the default gateway of a network.

Refer to the exhibit. Which path is used by the router for internet traffic?. 209.165.200.0/27. 10.10.10.0/28. 0.0.0.0/0. 10.10.13.0/24.

Refer to Exhibit. The loopback1 interface of the Atlanta router must reach the loopback3 interface of the Washington router. Which two static host routes must be configured on the NEW York router? (Choose two). ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::1. ipv6 route 2000::3/128 2023::3. ipv6 route 2000::3/128 s0/0/0. ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::2. ipv6 route 2000::1/128 s0/0/1.

Refer to the exhibit. A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.16.3.14. To which destination does the router send the packet?. 207 165 200 246 via Serial0/1/0. 207.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/0. 207.165 200.254 via Serial0/0/1. 207.165.200.250 via Serial0/0/0.

Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network?. allows servers and workstations to communicate across public network boundaries. provides a reduction in size of the forwarding table on network routers. allows communication across the Internet to other private networks. provides an added level of protection against Internet exposure.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator assumes a task to complete the connectivity between PC A and the File Server Switch A and Switch B have been partially configured with VLANs 10, 11, 12, and 13 What is the next step in the configuration?. Add PDA to VLAN 10 and the File Server to VLAN 11 for VLAN segmentation. Add VLAN 13 to the trunk links on Switch A and Switch B for VLAN propagation. Add a router on a stick between Switch A and Switch B allowing for Inter VLAN routing. Add PC A to the same subnet as the File Server allowing for intra-VLAN communication.

When a WPA2-PSK WLAN is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller, what is the minimum number of characters that is required in ASCII formar?. 6. 8. 12. 18.

Refer to the exhibit Which outcome is expected when PC_A sends data to PC_B?. The switch rewrites the source and destination MAC addresses with its own. The source and destination MAC addresses remain the same. The source MAC address is changed. The destination MAC address is replaced with ffff.ffff.ffff.

An engineer needs to configure LLDP to send the port description time length value (TLV). What command sequence must be implemented?. switch#lldp port-description. switch(config)#lldp port-description. switch(config-line)#lldp port-description. switch(config-if)#lldp port-description.

Refer to the exhibit. Which switch becomes the root bridge?. S1. S2. S3. S4.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the next hop address for traffic that is destined to host 10.0.1.5?. Loopback 0. 10.0.1.4. 10.0.1.50. 10.0.1.3.

When the active router in an HSRP group fails, what router assumes the role and forwards packets?. forwarding. backup. standby. listening.

An organization secures its network with multi-factor authentication using an authenticator app on employee smartphones. How is the applic secured in the case of a user’s smartphone being lost or stolen?. The application requires the user to enter a PIN before it provides the second factor. The application challenges a user by requiring an administrator password to reactivate when the smartphone is rebooted. The application requires an aadministrator password to reactivate after a configured interval. The application verifies that the user is in a specific location before it provides the second factor.

Refer to the exhibit. What action establishes the OSPF neighbor relationship without forming an adjacency?. modify priority. modify process ID. modify hello interval. modity network type.

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer booted a new switch and applied this configuration via the console port. Which additional configuration must be applied to allow administrators to authenticate directly to enable privilege mode via Telnet using a local username and password?. R1(config)#username admin R1(config-if)#line vty 0 4 R1(config-line)#password p@ss1234. R1(config)#username admin R1(config-if)#line vty 0 4 R1(config-line)#password p@ss1234 R1(config-line)#transport input telnet. R1(config)#username admin secret p@ss1234 R1(config-if)#line vty 0 4 R1(config-line)#login local R1(config)#enable secret p@ss1234. R1(config)#username admin privilege 15 secret p@ss1234 R1(config-if)#line vty 0 4 R1(config-line)#login local.

Refer to the exhibit. Which switch in this configuration will be elected as the root bridge? SW1: 0C:E0:38:00:36:75 SW2: 0C:0E:15:22:05:97 SW3: 0C:0E:15:1A:3C:9D SW4: 0C:E0:18:A1:B3:19. SW1. SW2. SW3. SW4.

An engineer is configuring NAT to translate the source subnet of 10.10.0.0/24 to any of three addresses 192.168.3.1, 192.168.3.2, 192.168.3.3 . Which configuration should be used?. enable configure terminal ip nat pool mypool 192.168.3.1 192.168.3.3 prefix-length 30 route-map permit 10.10.0.0 255.255.255.0 ip nat outside destination list 1 pool mypool interface g1/1 ip nat inside interface g1/2 ip nat outside. enable configure terminal ip nat pool mypool 192.168.3.1 192.168.3.3 prefix-length 30 access-list 1 permit 10.10.0.0 0.0.0.255 ip nat outside destination list 1 pool mypool interface g1/1 ip nat inside interface g1/2 ip nat outside. enable configure terminal ip nat pool mypool 192.168.3.1 192.168.3.3 prefix-length 30 access-list 1 permit 10.10.0 0.0 0.255 ip nat inside source list 1 pool mypool interface g1/1 ip nat inside interface g1/2 ip nat outside. enable configure terminal ip nat pool mypool 192.168.3.1 192.168.3.3 prefix-length 30 access-list 1 permit 10.10.0.0 0.0.0.255 interface g1/1 ip nat inside interface g1/2 ip nat outside.

An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor What command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual Interface to use address space efficiently?. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.254.0. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.128. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.224.