CHORROSIETE T1000

What is the purpose of the VFSG thermal disconnection device?. To electrically disconnect the VFSG field. To signal the GCU to remove field excitation due the output levels are too high. To mechanically disconnect the Generator drive shaft.

Which of the following will signal the P5 drive light to illuminate?. VFSG high oil temperature. VFSG over excitation. VFSG low oil pressure.

When the aircraft is in the air which of the following will automatically disconnect the VFSG?. High oil temperature. Low Oil Pressure. High oil quantity.

Which of the following measures the VFSG oil quantity?. The GCU. The EEC. The MEDC.

What parameters have red line exceedances?. EGT,N1, N2, N3, Oil temp and Pressure. N1, N3, TGT and fuel flow. N3, Fuel flow, fuel temperature and oil QTY.

What are the 4 LP speed probes used for?. All 4 used for indication and over speed. 1 for N1 indication, 1 for over speed and 2 spare probes. 2 for N1 indication and 2 for engine over speed.

Which of the following probes signal vibration?. 2 sensors located on the Fan hub and the turbine rear frame. 3 sensors located on the intermediate case, step aside gearbox, and low pressure turbine. 1 sensor located on the Fan casing flange A.

Why does the PMA send N2 speed data to the MEDC?. To verify that the N2 speed data is valid. Back up speed data to other systems. So the signal can be transformed to digital and directed to the CCR cabinets.

When is ignition de-energised?. When N3 > 40%. When the start switch holding solenoid releases but the switch does NOT move to the normal position. When N2 > 47.6%.

Where do the ignitors receive power from?. 28 VDC CAPTS & F/O instrument busses. The hot battery bus (HBB). any acceptable source available, as dictated by the BPCU.

Which of the following will occur when the crew receives a ‘X START’ on EICAS and the start switch has been moved to the START position in Flight?. One VFSG is engaged to increase the N2 speed. Dual ignition system start is energised. The BPCU sheds all galley and utility power.

What will occur if a second start attempt has failed?. The fire bottle are automatically armed. The EEC performs a bite function and a latched status message ENG FAIL is initiated. The VFSG motors the engine for 20 seconds or until the TGT is < 150 degrees C.

How many actuators are locking actuators?. 2. 3. 4.

Which actuators have LVDT feedback to the EEC?. The upper actuators. The lower actuators. All actuators.

What signals the Track lock actuator to enable the lock release system?. The EEC to and RPDU. The TR Control Hosted Function through an RPDU. The MEDC through an RPDU.

Where do the actuator proximity sensors send their signals to?. The EEC and on to the CCR’s. The MEDC and on to the CDN and EEC. The EMU and on to the EEC.

Where is the location of the engine fire bottles?. In the FWD cargo area. In the engine Nacelle area. In the wing route area.

Where do the fire bottle squibs get power from?. The EEC. The SPDU’s. The Hot Battery Bus.

What is the purpose of the Engine Anti Ice valve Controller?. To limit the airflow to 40 psig on take-off and landing. To control the PRSOV. To allow for Fan air to cool the engine bleed air.

What type of air is bled from the RR engine for EAI?. HP3. IP8. IP6.

What source of air is used in the EAI Controller Air cooler to cool the EAI muscle air supply?. Fan Air. IP8 exhausted air. IP3 air from the VSVF coolers.

What is the difference between the 2 EAI pressure sensors?. One measures low pressure and one measures high pressure. One sends a signal to the EEC and one sends a signal to the CCR cabinets through the Main Engine Data Concentrator (MEDC). None, they both read the same pressure as long as the system is operating normally, and either NUMBERING can be inoperative.

How many stages of L.P. turbine are there?. 3. 5. 6.

Where is the location of the Outlet Guide Vanes (OGV’s)?. Exit of the Fan Casing. Exit of the HP Compressor. Exit of the burner.

What percentage of thrust is created by the Fan?. 82%. 90%. 95%.

How many fan blades fitted to the Trent 1000?. 20. 28. 30.

How can I reset the EEC?. By powering the EEC from the GND TEST switch. By moving the fuel switch from Run to Off and back to Run. By cycling the Bus Toe Breaker (BTB).

What is the Secondary (backup) engine control parameter?. EPR. N1. N2.

How many pumps are incorporated into the main and Scavenge pump Assembly?. 5 scavenge and 1 pressure (all gear type). 10 scavenge (vane type) and 1 main (gear type). 8 scavenge and 2 pressure (all vane type).

The surface cooler bypass valve has an LVDT measuring feedback position, where do the LVDTs send their signals to?. The CCRs. The EEC. The EMUs.

What ultimately controls the position of the surface oil cooler heat exchanger bypass valve?. Throttle Lever Angle (TLA). Fuel Temperature. Oil Temperature.

Where is the location of the ODS?. Right hand side of the oil tank. Left hand side of the EEC. In the strut area.

What is the purpose of the primary gear type pump?. The primary pump supplies fuel pressure for idle and cruise power settings. The primary pump supplies appx 600 psi fuel to lubricate the internal workings of the HMU. The primary pump supplies all fuel at all required pressures from idle to max power.

What is servo fuel from the HMU used for?. The FOHE and IP8 bleed valves. The AOHE and VSV actuators. The VSV’s and fuel ejector tank.

What is the name of the valve that allows fuel to drain to the drains tank when the engine is shut down?. The Manifold Dump Valve (MDP). The drains collector Ejector valve (DCE). The Shut down and regulating valve (SDRV).

Where in the system is the fuel temperature probe?. On the input of the gear stage pump. On the outlet of the HMU. on the FOHE.

How many spray nozzles are installed in a Trent 1000?. 18. 24. 36.

What is the purpose of the secondary gear type pump?. The secondary pump supplies servo fuel only. The secondary pump is a back up to the primary pump when the aircraft is in cruise. The secondary pump assists in starting and assists in high power settings.

Which parts of the engine thrust control module (TCM) are Line replaceable units (LRUs)?. The TRA’s and Interlock actuators. The interlock actuators and the auto throttle servo motors. The auto throttle and TO/GA switches.

How many TLA resolvers are fitted in the Thrust Control Module (TCM)?. 2 total, 1 per throttle (each having 2 phases for Channel A and Channel B signals). 4 total, 2 per throttle lever (one for Channel A and one for Channel B). 6 total, 3 per throttle lever (One for the EEC, One for the MEDC and one for the CDN).

In the event of LP shaft failure and an over speed shutdown has occurred, the EEC latches a lock out signal, what maintenance function is required to allow another engine start?. The EEC will need resetting by moving the fuel switches from Run to cutoff and back to Run. The latched message needs to be cleared from the portable maintenance computer. The EEC data plug needs to be removed and replaced to signal that the failure has been rectified.

How many N1 (LPT) turbine speed probes are installed?. 2. 3. 4.

How is zone 3 accessory cooling achieved?. From air tubes that run through the reverser halves. From zone 2 exhausted air. From the scoop on the engine nacelle.

What is the purpose of the ESS system?. To use IP8 air signaled from the right solenoid banks to prevent icing in the IGV’s and VIGV’s. To use HP3 air signaled from the left solenoid banks to prevent icing in the turbine rear frame. To use IP6 air signaled by both solenoid banks to prevent icing in the IP compressor.

What is the purpose of the SAS valve?. To close the HP3 air allowing only IP8 air for cooling at high power settings. To allow HP3 air for turbine cooling at high power settings. To allow IP6 air to cool the centre bearing cavity in cruise only.

What would be the effect when an EICAS message ‘ENG THRUST HIGH’ is generated?. The SAS valve has failed in the CLOSED position and cooling has been reduced. The SAS valve has failed in the OPEN position and automatic thrust reduction has occurred. The SAS valve has failed to its last commanded position and engine rating requires additional thrust to meet the new TPR target.

What muscle pressure is used to move the VSV actuators?. Servo fuel from the HMU. HP3 servo air from both solenoid banks. IP8 servo air from the left solenoid bank.

Where do the VSV actuators directly send their LVDT feedback signals?. Both actuators signal Channel A and Channel B. the left actuator only has an LVDT that signals Both Channels of the EEC. Left Actuator to Channel A and the right actuator to channel B.