Cuestionario Airbus A320 Completo

Where are the air conditioning packs located within the Single Aisle family aircraft?. Aft cabin. Cockpit. Wing root area. Landing gear bay.

What is the purpose of the pack Flow Control Valve (FCV)?. Manage cabin pressure. Control avionics equipment. Adjust flow rate through the pack. Shut-off cabin fans.

How does the ACSC regulate the pack outlet temperature?. Adjusts avionics valves. Modulates BYPASS VALVE and RAM-AIR INLET. Controls cockpit pressurization. Manages cargo compartment ventilation.

What is the role of cabin recirculation fans?. Control avionics temperature. Facilitate cargo heating. Supply cold air to the cabin. Reduce bleed air demand and save fuel.

How is the temperature regulation system for cabin zones controlled and monitored?. Avionics Equipment Ventilation Computer. Cargo Heating Controller. ACSC. RPCU.

The primary function of the air conditioning system is to maintain the correct ________ and temperature within the pressurized compartments of the fuselage. sound. pressure. color. speed.

Within the Single Aisle family, the air conditioning packs are located in the ________ area, forward of the landing gear bay. cockpit. wing root. cargo compartment. avionics.

The main component of each pack assembly in the air conditioning system is the ________ machine. temperature. pressure. avionics. air cycle.

Hot air is supplied to the pack through the pack Flow Control Valve (FCV) from the ________ system. electrical. pneumatic. hydraulic. fuel.

The ACSC controls the pack outlet temperature by modulating the BYPASS VALVE and the ________ doors. cockpit. cargo compartment. avionics. RAM-AIR INLET.

What does FCU stand for in the context of the text?. Flight Control Unit. Flow Control Unit. Fuel Control Unit. Function Control Unit.

Which component of the FCU is responsible for managing the ON/OFF function of the FCV?. Torque Motor. Solenoid 1. Position Sensor. Pressure Sensor.

In which scenarios is the trim air PRV solenoid deenergized?. When duct temperature exceeds 88°C. When system pressure exceeds 6.5 psi. When HOT AIR P/B is set to OFF. During take-off and landing.

How is ventilation air supplied to lavatories and galleys?. From external sources only. From external sources only. Through the cockpit. From avionics equipment.

In the open circuit configuration, under what conditions is avionics equipment cooled with ambient air?. While in-flight. When the skin temperature is decreasing. On the ground with increasing skin temperature. On the ground with skin temperature below 12°C.

What does the Cargo Heating Controller regulate?. Ventilation air distribution. Cabin ambient temperature. Cargo compartment temperature. Extraction fan operation.

What does the AFT ISOL VALVE P/B control?. Cargo ventilation controller. Extraction fan in the cockpit. Isolation valves and extraction fan. Cargo heating controller.

What action does the HOT AIR P/B switch take when set to OFF?. It opens the isolation valves. It regulates the trim air valves. It starts the extraction fan. It closes the pressure regulating valve.

What controls the operation of the avionics equipment ventilation system?. Crew intervention. Skin temperature. Aircraft configuration. Avionics Equipment Ventilation Computer (AEVC).

Which configuration allows cooling of avionics equipment using ambient air?. Open Circuit Configuration. Closed Circuit Configuration. Partially Open Circuit Configuration. No configuration allows cooling using ambient air.

What does the skin exchanger outlet bypass valve help reduce?. Avionics bay noise. Skin temperature. Ambient air. Duct temperature.

What determines the FCV position in the main operating mode?. Flow setting on panel 30VU. Differential pressure. Torque motor position. Main operation switch.

In which aircraft conditions is the HIGH FLOW configuration used?. Take-off and landing. Single pack operation. APU bleed air supply for pack operation. Cruise altitude.

What happens if an FCU component malfunctions?. ACSC energizes Solenoid 2, pack enters BACK-UP mode. FCV opens fully. FCU switches to MAIN mode. ACSC energizes Solenoid 1.

What does the Mixer Unit do?. Mixes cabin air with conditioned air from packs. Distributes bleed air to the cabin. Filters recirculated air. Controls differential pressure.

Which ACSC manages the forward and aft cabin zones?. ACSC 1. ACSC 2. Both ACSCs equally. FCU.

What is the main purpose of the Automatic Flight System (AFS)?. Increase aircraft speed. Reduce pilot workload and enhance safety. Minimize fuel consumption. Control in-flight entertainment.

Which of the following is a fundamental component of the AFS?. Autopilot. SFCC. Ailerons. Multipurpose Control and Display Unit (MCDU).

What is the primary function of the MCDUs?. Short-term aircraft control. Engine control. Engine control. Long-term interface between the crew and FMGCs.

What does the FCU stand for? (Autoflight). Flight Crew Unit. Fuel Control Unit. Flight Control Unit. Fast Communication Unit.

How many Flight Augmentation Computers (FACs) are there in the AFS?. 1. 2. 3. 4.

What is the purpose of the FAC engagement P/BSWs?. Engine control. Rudder control. Landing gear control. Airspeed control.

What part of the AFS is used for the short-term control of the aircraft?. FCU. MCDUs. FMGCs. FMGCs.

How many parts does each FMGC consist of?. 1. 2. 3. 4.

What are the primary functions of the Flight Augmentation Computer (FAC)?. Rudder control and flight envelope protection. Engine maintenance. Passenger comfort control. Airspeed management.

What functions are primarily managed by the Flight Management (FM) part of the FMGC?. Rudder control. Engine maintenance. Flight plan definition and monitoring. In-flight entertainment.

What is the primary role of the Fault Isolation and Detection System (FIDS)?. Long-term flight planning. Short-term aircraft control. Maintenance failure information centralization. Maintenance failure information centralization.

Which display primarily shows guidance commands and flight mode status?. ND. FCU. PFDs. MCDUs.

What is the purpose of the ECAM/EWD page?. Display flight plan information. Show passenger announcements. Present warning messages and computer failures. Control engine thrust.

What function is responsible for calculating optimized speed for guidance purposes?. FCU. FIDS. FAC. FMGC.

What components is the AFS designed around?. FMGC and FCU. MCDUs and FACs. Wings and engines. Radar and altimeter.

What role do the MCDUs play in aircraft control?. Short-term control of the aircraft. Long-term interface between crew and FMGCs. Engine management. Landing gear control.

Which part of the AFS serves as the interface for transmitting engine data to FADEC?. FCU. MCDUs. FMGCs. FACs.

Which system centralizes failure information for maintenance purposes?. FMGC. FIDS. FCU. FMGS.

What is the main function of the Fault Isolation and Detection System (FIDS) in the Flight Augmentation Computer (FAC) 1?. To engage the Auto Flight System (AFS). To control rudder during landing. To detect lateral mode failures. To concentrate maintenance information.

What is the type of communication the Auto Flight System (AFS) maintains with the Centralized Fault Display Interface Unit (CFDIU)?. One-way communication. Two-way communication. One-way communication with sensors. Two-way communication with FACs.

The Auto Flight System (AFS) maintains a ____________ communication with the Centralized Fault Display Interface Unit (CFDIU). one-way. two-way. direct. complex.

The Autothrust (A/THR) function is engaged automatically when the aircraft's ____________ is detected, inhibiting it below 100 feet RA, except during the 15 seconds after lift-off. speed decreases. altitude increases. alpha-floor is detected. AP is engaged.

In cruise, which controls execute the orders of lateral modes, while the elevators and THS execute the orders of vertical modes? The ____________. ailerons and rudder. rudder and nose wheel. ailerons and spoilers. elevators and THS.

The engagement status of the Flight Director (FD) is displayed on the ____________ on the Flight Control Unit (FCU). FCU P/BSW. AP P/BSW. FAC P/BSW. A/THR P/BSW.

The Auto Flight System (AFS) can engage the AP in flight if the aircraft has been airborne for at least ____________ seconds. 2. 5. 10. 15.

When the AP is engaged, the load thresholds on the rudder pedals and the ____________ are increased, and if overridden, the AP disengages. side sticks. throttles. spoilers. ailerons.

The Flight Director (FD) automatically engages when the system is electrically supplied and logic conditions are met, and the engagement is indicated by the FD P/BSW ____________. blinking. red bars. green bars. white bars.

The Autothrust (A/THR) function sends computed thrust commands to the Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) for ____________ engine control. manual. automatic. remote. partial.

During take-off, the AP can be engaged in flight after the aircraft has been airborne for at least ____________ seconds. 2. 5. 10. 15.

The primary goal of the Automatic Flight System (AFS) is to enhance flight safety by reducing pilot workload and providing functions that improve ________________. flight entertainment. fuel efficiency. flight consistency. passenger comfort.

The AFS is designed around various components, including 2 Flight Management and Guidance Computers (FMGCs), 2 Flight Augmentation Computers (FACs), 2 Multipurpose Control and Display Units (MCDUs), and ________. 1 Radar Control Unit (RCU). 1 Navigation Control Unit (NCU). 1 Flight Control Unit (FCU). 1 Avionics Control Unit (ACU).

The FCU and MCDUs play a crucial role in allowing pilots to control the functions of the ________. Aircraft Fuel Management System (AFMS). Flight Data Monitoring System (FDMS). Flight Management and Guidance Computers (FMGCs). Flight Analysis and Reporting System (FARS).

One of the primary functions of the Flight Augmentation Computers (FACs) is to control ________. cabin lighting. engine thrust. wing flaps. rudder and flight envelope protection.

The Fault Isolation and Detection System (FIDS) is active only in ________. FAC 1. FAC 2. FMGC 1. FMGC 2.

The yaw damper, operated by yaw damper actuators, performs several functions, including dutch roll damping, turn coordination in cruise, and compensation for ________. cabin pressure fluctuations. loss of radio communication. engine failure during auto flight. turbulence.

Rudder trim orders can originate from the Rudder Trim selector or the ________ to control the rudder. Air Data/Inertial Reference System (ADIRS). Navigation Control Unit (NCU). Flight Management and Guidance Computer (FMGC). Aircraft Fuel Management System (AFMS).

What are the two sub-systems of the communications system?. Radio communication and onboard communication. Ground communication and air communication. Internal communication and external communication. Cockpit communication and cabin communication.

What is the purpose of communication during taxiing and towing on the Single Aisle aircraft?. To interact with the service personnel. To establish contact with the tower. To ensure proper passenger announcements. To communicate with maintenance personnel.

What must be done to enable transmission mode for the acoustic devices (microphone)?. Press the reception key. Push the ON/OFF switch. Select the related transmission key. Activate the standby frequency.

. What is the purpose of the Service Interphone system in terms of maintenance coordination?. To facilitate communication between flight crewmembers. To connect to the tower for takeoff clearance. To enable communication between flight crew and mechanic. To communicate with passengers during boarding.

How are audio lines from various jacks routed to the Audio Management Unit (AMU)?. Through the Cabin Intercommunication System. Through the Audio Control Panel. Through the Radio Management Panel. Through the amplifiers in the CIDS Directors.

When is the automatic mode of the Service Interphone system active?. During flight operations. On the ground with the landing gear up. During engine start. On the ground with gear down and compressed.

How is the Service Interphone system re-enabled after jacking the aircraft?. Switching the ACP ON/OFF switch. Pushing the INT pushbutton. Adjusting the interphone audio level. Switching the Service Interphone Override switch to ON.

The use of the radio system on the Single Aisle aircraft is extremely important for the safe operation of the _______________. flight crew. Aircraft. tower communication. ground handling.

To re-enable the service interphone, the SerViCE INTerphone OVeRriDe P/BSW must be switched to _______________. 'OFF'. 'ACTIVE'. 'ON'. 'ENABLE'.

The primary function of the Aircraft Identification Module (AIM) is to program the __________ message in the ELT. Military. Aircraft identification. Weather. Maintenance.

The ON-ARMED-TEST/RESET switch on the RCP can be set to the TEST/RESET position to initiate an ELT __________. Transmission. BITE test. Emergency announcement. Battery recharge.

The ELT operates automatically or manually, and its battery pack supplies power for approximately __________ hours. Twenty. Fifty. Ten. One hundred.

The Flight Interphone system is mainly used for __________ communication within the cockpit and with ground mechanics. Satellite. External. Passenger. Internal.

The ELT BITE test is performed to verify the proper operation of the ELT system and involves transmitting a(n) __________ signal. Emergency. Distress. Engine. Entertainment.

6. What is the purpose of the Cabin Assignment Module (CAM)?. Control passenger seating assignments. Manage interphone communications. Store cabin zone information. Operate oxygen mask systems.

How does the conference mode work for interphone communication?. It connects all cabin stations to the cockpit. It allows communication between two interphone sources. It activates priority messages in the cabin. It broadcasts chime sounds.

What is the priority of an emergency call in the communication system?. Priority 1. Priority 2. Priority 3. Priority 4.

What happens when an emergency call is initiated from the cockpit?. All cabin stations connect to the cockpit. The cockpit connects to all cabin stations. The cabin stations connect to each other. All PA loudspeakers are activated.

How does the cabin initiate interphone communication?. By using the Audio Control Panel (ACP). By selecting pushbuttons on the CALLS panel. By lifting the cockpit handset. By activating the oxygen masks.

. What is the purpose of the RESET key in the cabin ATTND stations?. Resets the interphone function. Initiates an emergency call. Initiates a PA announcement. Resets the system power.

How are calls from the cockpit initiated using the CALLS panel?. By using the CABin key and knob. By using the ACP pushbuttons. By using the ATT key on the AIP. By using the PA ALL key.

The upper row of the AIP display is used for the indication of information concerning the cabin and flight crew interphone system. The outer left section is used to show the __________ information. handset. interphone. system. status.

To select an announcement using the handmic, the Passenger Address (PA) transmission key located on the Audio Control Panel (ACP) must be pressed and held. It comes on green and __________ the microphone audio to the PA system. connects. disconnects. transmits. blocks.

To make an announcement using the boomset or the oxygen mask, the PA transmission key must be pressed and held on the ACP. It comes on green. The handmic has also the __________ priority. same. higher. lower. equal.

A handset is mounted on the cockpit center pedestal and contains a PTT SW. Pressing on the PTT SW keys the PA system, __________ lower priority PA sources and broadcasting the speech over all PA loudspeakers and PAX headsets. overriding. avoiding. enhancing. silencing.

The conference mode is used for the communication between __________ interphone sources. two. more than two. all. specific.

How is speech communication established from the cockpit using the SVCE INT jacks?. Pressing the CABin key. Using the Audio Control Panel (ACP). Pressing the SVCE INT OVRD pushbutton. Using the Audio Management Unit (AMU).

What indication is displayed on Attendant Indication Panels (AIPs) when cabin stations initiate communication using the SVCE INT jacks?. "SERV INT". "CABIN CALL". "CABIN COMM". "SERV COMM".

Which component digitizes audio signals from cabin stations and transmits them to the directors?. DEUs. AMU. LGCIUs. ACP.

How is the BTC power supply provided when APU GEN or EXT PWR are available?. Through the Battery Bus. Through the GAPCU. Through the APU GEN. Through the IDG.

Why is the BTC ground path provided by the related Generator Control Unit (GCU)?. Why is the BTC ground path provided by the related Generator Control Unit (GCU)?. To inhibit the BTC close logic. To protect against Over Current. To control battery power.

In which situation are both BTCs closed?. APU GEN only. GEN 2 only. EXT PWR only. A & C.

The BTC power supply is provided by the Ground and Auxiliary Power Control Unit (GAPCU) when _____ are available. APU GEN. battery power. external power. IDG 1.

With only EXT PWR on, both BTCs should be closed to supply _____. AC BUS 1. AC BUS 2. AC BUS 1+2. IDG 1.

With IDG 2 only operation, both BTCs should be closed. IDG 2 supplies its own busbar and via the closed BTCs also _____. AC BUS 1. AC BUS 2. AC BUS 1 + 2. battery power.

APU GEN is one of the power sources with the lowest priority to supply the AC BUSES. True. False.

When APU GEN is the only power source, BTC 1 and 2 close to supply the AC power network. True. False.

With only EXT PWR on, both BTCs should be open to avoid parallel operation with the generators. True. False.

The Emergency Generator is activated via the blue hydraulic system only if the ________________. landing gear is compressed. landing gear is extended. aircraft is on the ground. landing gear is NOT compressed.

If AC BUS 1 and 2 are lost above a given airspeed, the Ram Air Turbine (RAT) will automatically ________________. retract. extend. turn off. decrease speed.

In the case of Generator 1 LINE OFF, which component opens?. Generator Line Contactor (GLC) 1. Battery Contactors. External Power Contactor (EPC). Generator Control Unit (GCU).

The emergency generator is powered by the ________________. blue hydraulic system. green hydraulic system. yellow hydraulic system. red hydraulic system.

The Ground and Auxiliary Power Control Unit (GAPCU) interfaces only with the Centralized Fault Display Interface Unit (CFDIU). True. False.

The GAPCU can transmit GCU fault data to the CFDIU via ARINC 429 data bus. True. False.

Maintenance tests on the GAPCU and GCUs can be initiated inflight for diagnostic purposes. True. False.

The Constant Speed Motor/Generator (CSM/G) operates at 50 Hz frequency. True. False.

What is the priority sequence for supplying the two normal AC BUSes (AC BUS 1 & AC BUS 2)?. Onside generator (IDG), external Power, APU GEN, offside generator. External Power, APU GEN, offside generator, onside generator (IDG). APU GEN, offside generator, onside generator (IDG), external Power. Offside generator, onside generator (IDG), external Power, APU GEN.

What is the purpose of the 115/26V AUTO TRANSFORMER in the AC distribution system?. Convert AC power to DC power. Supply power to the APU GEN. Connect AC ESS BUS to AC BUS 1. Convert 115V AC to 26V AC.

How is DC generation achieved in the aircraft's electrical system?. By Transformer Rectifiers (TRs). Through a generator driven by the APU. By converting AC power to DC power. Through an external power unit.

Which power source replaces a faulty main TR to supply the DC ESS BUS?. APU GEN. Battery 1. Battery 2. External Power.

What is the role of the Emergency Generator in the aircraft's electrical system?. Replace the main engine generators. Supply power during normal flight operations. Connect AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 in parallel. Provide power in case of failure of all main generators.

Which component is responsible for converting 115 volts to 26 volts for the sub-busbar?. Transformer Rectifiers (TRs). AC ESS SHED BUS. 115/26VAC Auto Transformer. Static Inverter.

What is the purpose of the Static Inverter in the electrical system?. Supply AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2. Replace faulty main TR units. Convert DC to AC power. Supply power to the galley circuits.

The STATic INVerter connected to battery 1 supplies the AC __________ BUS. AC BUS 1. DC ESS BUS. AC ESS BUS. AC STAT INV BUS.

The AC transfer circuit allows generators to be connected in parallel on the same bus. True. False.

The AC ESSential BUS can be supplied by AC BUS 2 if AC BUS 1 fails. True. False.

What is the purpose of the red manual inflation handle for the escape slide?. To open the door. To attach the survival kit. To initiate automatic inflation. To manually inflate the slide.

The inflation and deployment of the escape slide start automatically when the cabin door opens in the _____ mode. armed. open. locked. closed.

On the A319, A320, and A321, the forward and aft cargo compartments can have an optional _____ cargo loading system. automated. semi-automatic. manual. automated and manual.

The lower deck of the A318 is divided into three cargo compartments: the forward cargo compartment, the aft cargo compartment, and the _____ cargo compartment. central. bulk. rear. side.

To open a cockpit sliding window from the inside, push down the black push button on top of the _____ handle. locking. opening. closing. emergency.

The inflation and deployment sequence of the slide raft for the FWD and rear cabin doors is automatically initiated when the door is opened in the _____ configuration. closed. locked. armed. open.

The red manual inflation handle for the escape slide is located on the _____ side of the girt bar. left hand. right hand. top. bottom.

In case of a ditching, the survival kit must be connected to the slide raft before opening the _____. cockpit window. cabin door. overhead bin. emergency exit.

One or more Escape Slide/Slide Raft Cabin Passenger Door may be inoperative provided the associated door is considered _____. operational. closed. locked. inoperative.

The lower deck of the A318 is divided into three cargo compartments: the forward cargo compartment, the aft cargo compartment, and the bulk _____ compartment. storage. cargo. overhead. passenger.

The inflation and deployment of the escape slide for the forward and aft cabin doors are manually initiated. True. False.

The manual inflation handle for the escape slide is located on the lefthand side of the girt bar. True. False.

The emergency exit escape slides on the A319, A320, and A321 are stowed in containers in the aft cargo compartment. True. False.

The slide raft is pneumatically pushed open as soon as the cabin door handle is lifted. True. False.

The automatic inflation of the escape slide can be manually initiated by pulling the manual inflation handle. True. False.

On the A318, the lower deck is divided into two cargo compartments. True. False.

The emergency exit escape slides are installed above each door in the overhead stowage compartment. True. False.

The escape slide is of dual-lane type for the A318, A319, and A320. True. False.

The containers of the emergency exit escape slides are in the wing root fairing. True. False.

The manual inflation handle for the escape slide is used to open the cockpit sliding windows. True. False.

What is the function of the Fire Detection Unit (FDU) in the engine and APU fire detection system?. Monitors flight crew actions. Monitors engine thrust. Monitors fire extinguishing agents. Monitors detection loops.

How are the FIRE and FAULT signals from the fire detection system displayed to the flight crew?. On the engine control panel. On the flight deck alerts sounds. On the ECAM. On the overhead panel.

How many fire bottles are installed in each engine's pylon for fire extinguishing?. 1. 2. 3. 4.

What is the purpose of the AGENT P/BSW switches for the engine fire extinguishing system?. Arm the extinguishing system. Control the aircraft's thrust. Monitor the engine's temperature. Test the fire detection system.

Each system in the FIRE detection has __________ detection loops. 1. 2. 3. 4.

The guarded FIRE P/B switches are used to give FIRE indication and __________ the related systems. arm. disarm. monitor. activate.

The discharge of each fire extinguisher bottle for the engine is controlled by a related __________ switch. FIRE P/B. FIRE warning. AGENT P/BSW. discharge.

On the A320, how many fire extinguisher bottles are installed in the AFT cargo compartment as part of the optional system?. 1. 2. 3. 4.

Lavatory smoke detection is monitored by the SDF integrated in the __________. AEVC. FWC. CIDS. fire extinguisher.

The lavatory smoke detector sends __________ warnings to the FWC. FIRE. SMOKE. FAULT. ALERT.

Each fire detection loop for the CEO engine contains __________ detector elements. 1. 2. 3. 4.

The cargo compartment fire-extinguishing agent is discharged into the FWD compartment through __________ nozzles. 1. 2. 3. 4.

What causes the engine or APU to shut down when the FIRE pushbutton is released?. Loss of fuel supply. Electrical failure. Fire extinguishing. Thrust reduction.

What are the roles of the AGENT P/BSW switches in the fire extinguishing system?. Control extinguisher discharge. Control engine thrust. Monitor cabin temperature. Monitor avionics equipment.

What action is taken on the ground when an APU FIRE warning occurs?. APU is automatically shut down. APU continues normal operation. APU fire bottles are discharged. APU is restarted immediately.

What does the avionics SMOKE detector specifically detect?. Fire in the cabin. Smoke from the engines. Overheating of avionics equipment. Smoke from the lavatories.

How is the cargo compartment smoke detection system monitored?. By the AEVC. By the FWC. By the AGENT P/BSW switches. By SDF (Smoke Detection Functions) on CIDS.

How many smoke detectors are installed in each cavity of the cargo compartments?. 1. 2. 3. 4.

What triggers the automatic discharge of the fire extinguisher in the lavatory waste bin?. Fire in the adjacent lavatory. High cabin temperature. Presence of smoke. Fire.

How does the FDU generate a fire warning signal in case of a flame or hot gas detected?. Closes the INTEGRITY switch. Opens the ALARM switch. Closes the ALARM switch. Generates a fault signal.

How many detection loops does the engine Fire Detection Unit (FDU) have?. 1. 2. 3. 4.

What does the FDU do if both loops are broken due to a torching flame?. Generates fire warning signal. Generates fault warning signal. Shuts down the engine. Sends inert gas.

In which situations is the detection fault logic based on a dual loop failure activated?. Fire on loop A, fault on loop B. Fire on loop B, fault on loop A. Total loss of detection system. Both loops working properly.

What components are responsible for fire detection in the engines and APU?. FIRE switches and P/B switches. FWC and ECAM. ALARM and INTEGRITY switches. Detectors and loops.

What must be done if an engine or APU LOOP A or LOOP B fault is detected?. Disregard the fault and continue operations. Perform a fire test. Isolate the fault loop. Shut down the engines.

How does the FDU generate an inoperative signal for loop A or loop B fault logic?. By releasing helium gas. By opening the ALARM switch. By detecting electrical failure. By detecting core gas.

The _____________ fire detection system includes two identical detection loops (A and B) installed in parallel. engine. cargo. avionics. APU.

The ____________ generates fire and fault signals to the Flight Warning Computer (FWC) for display on ECAM. APU MASTER SWITCH. FDU. CFDIU. FWC.

The extinguishing system for the engine fire bottles is controlled by ___________ switches on the FIRE panel. FIRE. ENGINE. AGENT. EXTINGUISHER.

What is the primary function of the Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer (THS)?. Short-term pitch control. Long-term pitch control. Roll control. Yaw control.

Which components achieve roll control on the Airbus A320 family aircraft?. Ailerons and spoilers. Elevators and THS. Rudder and yaw damper. Speed brakes and ground spoilers.

What is the purpose of the speed brake function?. To decrease aircraft drag. To increase aircraft drag. To control engine thrust. To improve fuel efficiency.

How many slats are there on each wing of the Airbus A321?. 2. 4. 5. 7.

What is the function of the Slats and Flaps Control Computers (SFCCs)?. To control and monitor slats and flaps. To control the THS. To control ailerons. To control the rudder.

How are the slat and flap systems powered?. Electrically and hydraulically. Manually. Pneumatically. Mechanically.

What locks the transmission when the slat and flap surfaces reach the selected position?. Power Control Unit (PCU). Torque shafts. Pressure Off Brake (POB). Wing Tip Brakes (WTBs).

What is the purpose of the Alpha/speed lock function in relation to slats?. To prevent slats from extending at high angles of attack or low speeds. To prevent slats from retracting during low speeds. To increase slat extension speed. To improve overall aircraft performance.

How many positions does the FLAPS lever have?. 3. 4. 5. 6.

Which computers are responsible for pitch and roll control on the Airbus A320 family aircraft?. Elevator Aileron Computers (ELAC). Spoiler Elevator Computers (SEC). Flight Augmentation Computers (FAC). Flight Control Data Concentrators (FCDC).

In case of a double ELAC failure, what happens to aileron actuators?. They switch to damping mode. They become inoperative. They disconnect from the aircraft. They lock in their current position.

What is the role of the sidestick in the aircraft's control system?. It controls the rudder. It sends electrical orders to ELACs and SECs. It operates the ailerons. It controls the THS.

The Flight Management Guidance Computer (FMGC) sends roll commands directly to the SECs. True. False.

Spoilers 1 are used for roll control. True. False.

In case of a hydraulic power loss, spoiler surfaces remain extended. True. False.

What is the purpose of the ground spoiler function?. To increase lift during landing. To decrease lift during landing. To increase lift during take-off. To decrease drag during flight.

Which components control the slat and flap systems on the A320 family aircraft?. Slats. Flaps. Slat Flap Control Computers (SFCCs). Landing Gear Control and Interface Units (LGCIUs).

How many positions are there for the FLAPS lever on the aircraft?. 2. 3. 4. 5.

A computer failure can engage a lateral ___________ configuration. Abnormal. Normal. Direct. Alternate.

In case of loss of both ELevator Aileron Computers (ELACs) only ___________ are available. Elevators. Ailerons. Spoilers. Rudder.

If the normal law of both ELACs fails, the ___________ law takes over. Normal. Direct. Alternate. Mechanical.

When half speed is detected, a level 1 caution is generated and a fault message is displayed on the ___________. Landing Gear Control. ECAM control panel. EWD. Mechanical trim.

In this example Slat Flap Control Computer (SFCC) 2 flap channel is inoperative and SFCC 1 operates normally. Each flap channel lane of SFCC 1 generates ___________ signals. Pitch. Command. Drive. Hydraulic.

Two flap disconnect sensors are fitted on the interconnecting strut between inner and outer flaps on each wing. The flap disconnect sensors are ___________ sensors. Pressure. Proximity. Hydraulic. Temperature.

In case of total electrical loss, induced roll is obtained by using the ___________, which have a mechanical control. Throttle levers. Rudder pedals. Joysticks. Elevator levers.

In case of loss of both servo controls of the same aileron, the other aileron is still operated. True. False.

If the alternate law is lost, the direct law computed in ELAC 1 or 2 becomes active. The pitch direct law is active in case of ___________. Dual IR failure. Triple IR failure. Failure of the RA. Dual FAC failure.

How are the wing tanks in the A318/A319/A320 divided?. Into inner cells and outer cells. They are not divided. Into left and right tanks. Into upper and lower cells.

In the A321, are the wing tanks divided like in the A318/A319/A320?. No, they are not divided. Yes, into inner and outer cells. Yes, into upper and lower cells. Yes, into left and right tanks.

What is the first source of fuel supplied to the engines in the A318/A319/A320?. Center tank. Wing inner cells. Wing outer cells. Direct feed from outer cells.

How is fuel transferred from the outer cells to the inner cells in the A318/A319/A320?. Via inter cell transfer valves. Automatically when outer cells are empty. Through a cross feed valve. By gravity flow.

What happens to the LP valve when an engine stops in the A318/A319/A320?. It closes. It remains open. It switches to manual control. It triggers the APU.

What is the purpose of the cross feed valve in the A318/A319/A320?. To connect or isolate the left and right sides. To regulate fuel temperature. To transfer fuel to the APU. To prevent fuel leaks.

Where is the Refuel/Defuel coupling located on the RH wing of the aircraft?. On the lower surface, near the leading edge. On the upper surface, near the trailing edge. Inside the cockpit. On the APU.

How does the crossfeed valve operate in the aircraft's fuel system?. It electrically connects the left and right tanks. It isolates the engine fuel feed supply. It controls fuel temperature. It supplies fuel to the APU.

What happens when the center tank pumps run in the aircraft's fuel system?. The center tank supplies fuel to the engines. The LP valve closes. The cross feed valve opens. The APU LP valve opens.

Where is the air release valve installed in the fuel system?. At the highest point between the pump and the LP fuel valve. In the center tank. In the wing tank. Inside the fuel pump.

7. When does the LP fuel valve isolate the engine fuel feed supply?. At engine shutdown and in case of an emergency. During refueling. When the LP valve is manually closed. During crossfeed operations.

In the A318/A319/A320, when is fuel supplied to the engines from the wing inner cells? When the center tank is __________. full. empty. overfilled. pressurized.

Two engine Low Pressure (LP) valves in the A318/A319/A320 close when their related engine __________. is running. is refueled. stops. overheats.

The cross feed valve in the A318/A319/A320 divides the main fuel pump system into two parts, one for each __________. fuel tank. wing. engine. pump.

The wing fuel feed pumps in the A318/A319/A320 are replaced from the __________. cockpit. belly fairing. wing upper surface. wing lower surface.

The manual Magnetic Level Indicators are used to calculate tank fuel quantities if a failure affects the Fuel Quantity Indicating System, such as an __________. electrical failure. engine malfunction. APU failure. overheating issue.

The LP fuel valve in the A318/A319/A320 isolates the engine fuel feed supply during engine shutdown or in case of an __________. APU malfunction. LP valve failure. engine fire emergency. overheating situation.

The scavenge jet pump in the fuel system has a jet pump body, a jet adaptor assembly, and a non-return valve (NRV) that prevents fuel from entering a fuel pump that is __________. running. inoperative. oversized. overheated.

In what situation will the FAULT light on the MODE SEL P/BSW and the MASTER CAUT come on in flight?. Failure of the center tank transfer valves. Failure of wing tank transfer valves. When more than 5000 kg of fuel is left in either wing tank. When there is no fuel in the center tank.

What triggers the display of the FUEL page on the ECAM?. Failure of the main fuel pumps. Wing tank overflow. Failure of the center tank transfer valves. Low fuel level in the center tank.

In MANUAL MODE, what should be done when the FAULT light appears in the CTR TK P/BSW?. Leave the P/B switch in the OFF position. Set the MODE SEL P/BSW to AUTO mode. Push the FAULT light to reset it. Set the related CTR TK L XFR or R XFR P/B switch to OFF.

How can you test the operation of the high-level protection system during refueling?. By setting the Pre-selector to maximum fuel load. By draining at least one liter of fuel. By performing the Lights (LTS) and High Level (HI. LVL) test. By turning on the external ground power.

Before entering a fuel tank for maintenance, it is essential to complete the Pre-Entry Checklist. True. False.

What is the purpose of the Power Transfer Unit (PTU)?. It transfers fluid between the green and yellow hydraulic systems. It provides auxiliary pressure supply to the blue system. It is used for cargo door operation on the yellow system. It is auxiliary pressure supply for either the green or yellow systems.

When refueling is complete, the END light will not illuminate, indicating that the refuel valve is still open. True. False.

What is the normal source of pressure for the green hydraulic system?. Engine Driven Pump (EDP). Power Transfer Unit (PTU). Electrical pump (E-Pump). Ram Air Turbine (RAT).

Which hydraulic system can the blue electric pump be used as an auxiliary power source for on the ground?. Green. Blue. Yellow. None.

How is the RAT deployed for auxiliary pressure supply?. Automatically. Manually. Both automatically and manually. It is always extended.

What prevents the RAT from stowing when extended?. Interlock mechanism. Hydraulic pressure. Spring force. Solenoid operation.

Which system uses the Constant Speed Motor/Generator (CSM/G) to provide emergency electrical power?. Green. Yellow. Blue. All Systems.

What is the role of priority valves in the hydraulic system?. They cut off hydraulic power to essential systems. They transfer fluid between hydraulic systems. They cut off hydraulic power to Heavy Load Users. They supply hydraulic power to heavy load users.

The PTU is an auxiliary pressure supply for either the green or yellow systems without the transfer of fluid between the two systems. It operates automatically if there is a delta pressure of __________ between the green/yellow or yellow/green hydraulic systems. 100psi. 250psi. 500psi. 750psi.

The RAT is an auxiliary pressure supply for the blue system and for the emergency electrical power Constant Speed Motor/Generator (CSM / G). It can be deployed __________ or manually depending on the failure conditions. automatically. manually. both automatically and manually. neither automatically nor manually.

The interlock mechanism on the RAT will only permit RAT stowage if the blades are properly aligned. It also prevents rotation when stowed. The interlock will release at approximately __________ degrees from the full extension position. 10 degrees. 45 degrees. 90 degrees. 5 degrees.

In the event of low hydraulic pressure, the priority valves maintain the operation of essential systems by cutting off hydraulic power to __________. heavy load users. all systems. the PTU. the RAT.

What is the auxiliary source of pressure for the blue hydraulic system?. EDP. PTU. E-Pump. RAT.

Where are hydraulic pipes located within the aircraft?. Passenger cabin and flight compartment. Only in the flight compartment. Only in the passenger cabin. In the aircraft except in Passenger cabin and flight compartment.

What is the nitrogen pressure set to during the pressurization of the reservoir?. 30 PSI. 40 PSI. 50 PSI. 60 PSI.

Before starting the filling procedure, what must be the position of the flight control surfaces and cargo doors?. Neutral retracted position. Fully extended position. Open position. Any position.

What should the triple indicator show when the yellow electric pump is selected to OFF?. Hydraulic system pressure. Brake accumulator pressure. Nitrogen pressure. Green hydraulic pressure.

Why should a warning notice be placed before operating the hydraulic system?. To indicate the system is depressurized. To prevent others from operating the system. To remind the operator to wear gloves. To indicate the cargo doors are closed.

What is done with the hand pump lever from the yellow panel during the filling operation?. It is removed and assembled for use on the green panel. It is left in place. It is disconnected and stored in a toolbox. It is used to depressurize the system.

What precautions should be taken before removing the flexible hose from its housing?. Wear proper protection gloves and goggles. Disconnect the hydraulic system. Depressurize the nitrogen pressure. Ensure the cargo doors are open.

How is the selection of the hydraulic system to be filled confirmed?. A colored LED on the indication panel. A sound alert. A pressure gauge reading. An audible beep.

Where should the system reservoir be filled to during the filling operation?. To the end of the scale. To the last white line in the related colored band. To the top of the reservoir. To the halfway mark.

The triple indicator should show the brake accumulator as being fully pressurized to 5000 PSI when the electric pump is turned OFF. True. False.

Warning notices are placed to remind the operator to wear gloves and goggles during the hydraulic filling operation. True. False.

The hand pump lever is disconnected and stored in a toolbox during the filling operation. True. False.

The flexible hose is inserted into a new canister of hydraulic fluid after connecting it to the hand pump. True. False.

The filling operation is initiated by selecting the hydraulic system that needs to be filled. True. False.

The system reservoir should be filled to the end of the scale during the filling operation. True. False.

Which subsystems are part of the ice and rain protection system on the Airbus A320 family aircraft?. Wing ice protection. Engine air intake ice protection, rain mast ice protection. Probe ice protection, Windshield ice and rain protection. All above.

How is wing anti-ice supply controlled for both wings?. By a single pushbutton switch on the overhead ANTI ICE pane. By separate switches for each wing. By the engine's bleed air automatically. By manual control in the cockpit.

When is engine air intake anti-ice protection available?. Only in flight. Only on the ground. In flight or on the ground with the engine running. Automatically when the aircraft is powered.

What is used to protect the Angle Of Attack (AOA) sensors, pitot probes, static ports, and Total Air Temperature (TAT) probes from ice?. Electrical heating. Hot air from the pneumatic system. Manual insulation covers. Engine bleed air.

How is windshield anti-icing provided on the Airbus A320 family aircraft?. By manual control in the cockpit. By hot air from the pneumatic system. Automatically when at least one engine is running. By electrical heating.

Under what conditions is the drain mast heating switched ON?. When the electrical system is powered. When the aircraft is in heavy rain. When the temperature is above a specific value. It is always in operation.

The front windshields and side windows are heated ____________ when at least one engine is running. automatically. manually. with wipers. during takeoff.

The Drain Mast Heating is switched ON when the temperature is ____________ a specific value. above. below. exactly at. not related to.

What subsystem protects the engine air intake from ice?. Probe ice protection. Windshield ice and rain protection. Engine air intake ice protection. Drain mast ice protection.

Which part of the aircraft's electrical system heats the water and waste system for ice protection?. Visual lighted ice detection. Electronic ice detection system. Engine bleed air. Hot air from the pneumatic system.

How is the operation of the rain repellent system controlled on the CAPT and F/O sides?. Independently. Simultaneously. Manually. Automatically.

What is used to initiate a new cycle of rain repellent fluid spray?. Press the P/B once. Press and hold the P/B. Release and press the P/B again. It starts automatically.

The wing anti-ice supply to both wings is controlled by a single pushbutton switch on the overhead ANTI ICE panel. True. False.

Engine anti-ice is only available in flight and not on the ground with the engine running. True. False.

The PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pushbutton switch is used to select windshield anti-icing when the engines are shut down. True. False.

Each Control Unit (CU) regulates the heating temperature of the associated drain mast tube between ____________. 0°C (32°F) to 6°C (43°F). 6°C (43°F) to 10°C (50°F). 10°C (50°F) to 15°C (59°F). 15°C (59°F) to 20°C (68°F).

The system status is sent to the Cabin Intercommunication Data System (CIDS) for indication on the ____________. pilot's display. maintenance logbook. Flight Attendant Panel (FAP). Centralized Fault Display Interface Unit (CFDIU).

If there is a failure of the Heater (HTR) or CU, a ____________ light is illuminated on the Flight Attendant Panel (FAP). green. red. CAUTion. maintenance.

The drain mast data is stored in the ____________. aircraft's central server. maintenance logbook. Centralized Fault Display Interface Unit (CFDIU). Flight Attendant Panel (FAP).

To perform a complete test of the drain mast system, two tests must be carried out, one from the MCDU, and the second one on each ____________. flight attendant. maintenance technician. Control Unit (CU). aircraft.

The thermal switch in the AC power supply line within the drain mast opens at 120°C (250°F). True. False.

The system status is sent to the Centralized Fault Display Interface Unit (CFDIU) for indication. True. False.

If there is a failure of the Heater (HTR) or CU, a green light is illuminated on the Flight Attendant Panel (FAP). True. False.

What is the purpose of the Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitoring (ECAM) system?. Monitoring engine parameters. Displaying weather information. Controlling navigation systems. Managing cabin lighting.

Which Display Management Computer (DMC) drives the Captain's Primary Flight Display (PFD) in normal operation?. DMC 1. DMC 2. DMC 3. DMC 4.

When does the ADV symbol pulsate on the Engine/Warning Display (EWD)?. When there's an advisory on another SD page. During takeoff and landing. When a failure is detected by the FWC. When the CAPT PFD and ND fail.

What does the overflow arrow on the EWD indicate?. Engine failures. Excessive warning messages. Cabin temperature issues. Navigation system problems.

What is the role of the System Data Acquisition Concentrators (SDACs) in the aircraft system?. Generate warning messages. Compute engine parameters. Receive signals from aircraft systems. Provide navigation guidance.

In which situations does the Engine/Warning Display (EWD) display the title of a failure and the associated actions to take?. During takeoff and landing only. When there's an advisory on another SD page. When an aural warning is triggered. In case of aircraft system failure.

How are the CLeaR P/Bs used in response to a system failure?. They turn off the power to the Display Units (DUs). They release the Fault lights on the hydraulic panel. They indicate the phase of the flight. They clear the warnings and cautions.

What are the primary parameters displayed in the upper area of the Engine/Warning Display (EWD)?. Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR). Slat/flap position. Fuel On Board (FOB). All of above.

The Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitoring (ECAM) system displays weather information. True. False.

In normal operation, DMC 1 drives the Captain's Primary Flight Display (PFD), while DMC 2 drives the First Officer's PFD. True. False.

The CLeaR P/Bs are used to activate the warnings and cautions. True. False.

The STATUS REMINDER and RECALL FUNCTION reminds the crew of cleared warnings. True. False.

The System Data Acquisition Concentrators (SDACs) send data to the Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) displays. True. False.

Level 3 alerts correspond to an emergency configuration where corrective or palliative action must be taken by the crew __________. immediately. without any action. after a crew meeting. during routine maintenance.

A primary failure is a failure of an equipment or system causing the loss of __________ equipment. secondary. other. independent. advisory.

In ECAM Normal Dual Display mode, the flashing ADV symbol indicates multiple advisories on different pages or a failure __________. on the currently displayed page. detected by the FWC. requiring immediate action. in the ECP.

In ECAM MONO Display mode, when a value drifts from its normal range, a white ADV message flashes in the center of the EWD to attract crew __________. monitoring. attention. routine maintenance. emergency response.

Level 3 warnings are associated with a Continuous Repetitive Chime (CRC), warning messages on Liquid Crystal Display (LCD), and a flashing __________. caution light. advisory light. caution message. MASTER WARNing light.

Level 2 alerts require immediate crew awareness but not immediate __________ action. emergency. corrective. advisory. monitoring.

What happens when the PFD unit is switched off by its potentiometer?. ND is automatically displayed on the PFD unit. The PFD image remains on the PFD unit. The ND image is automatically displayed on the ND unit. The ECAM single display mode is activated.

How is the PFD/ND transfer (XFR) performed?. Physically swapping the PFD and ND units. Manually switching the PFD/ND outputs inside the DMC. Automatically by the ECAM Control Panel. Through the use of SDAC.

What happens when the upper EWD display fails?. Upper display is automatically transferred to the lower display. ECAM single display mode is activated. The ECAM/ND transfer selector is activated. Both PFD and ND units fail.

What reconfiguration options are available in case of lower DU failure?. No automatic reconfiguration is possible. The ECAM works in dual display mode. PFD automatically takes over the lower DU. ND image is displayed on the PFD.

In the case of an upper EWD failure or if the upper display control potentiometer is turned to off, the upper display is automatically transferred on the __________ display. lower Display. ND. PFD. ECAM.

A system page can be recovered by pushing and holding a system key on the ECP or by rotating the ECAM/ND XFR selector on the switching panel in order to display the system page on the __________ side. ND. ECAM. PFD. SDAC.

In case of lower DU failure or if the lower display is turned to off, no automatic reconfiguration is possible, and the ECAM works in __________ display mode. Single. Dual. Triple. Full.

In case of EWD unit and SD unit failure, each crew member can permanently present the EWD on the ND unit by rotating the ECAM/ND transfer selector switch on the switching panel. True. False.

It is still possible to recover a system page by pushing and holding a system key on the ECP. True. False.

How should the annunciator light switch be set to test the clock?. ON. OFF. TEST. RESET.

What is the operational consequence of Class 1 failures?. Affects flight. No operational consequence. Only affects the cockpit. Requires maintenance.

What does the crew report in the logbook after a malfunction?. Cockpit effect. Flight time. Weather conditions. Maintenance procedures.

What are the two primary functions of the Flight Data Interface and Management Unit (FDIMU)?. Flight Data Interface Unit (FDIU) and Data Management Unit (DMU). Data Loading Selector (DLS) and Multipurpose Disk Drive Unit (MDDU). Digital Flight Data Recorder (DFDR) and Quick Access Recorder (QAR). Linear Accelerometer (LA) and System Data Acquisition Concentrator (SDAC).

What does the FDIU-part of the FDIMU do with the input parameters?. Transmits them to the Digital AIDS Recorder (DAR). Converts, compares, and checks them. Records them in data frames. Routes them to the Data Loading Routing Box (DLRB).

When does the FDIU-part check the integrity of the mandatory parameters during a flight?. Continuously throughout the flight. After the engines are shut down. Before engine start. Only during maintenance checks.

What is the purpose of the underwater locator beacon on the DFDR?. To activate the DFDR. To provide the location of the recorder in water after an accident. To transmit data to the CFDIU. To control the power interlock circuit.

How long does the DFDR store data?. 24 hours. 48 hours. 25 hours. 72 hours.

What type of data frames are stored in the Quick Access Recorder (QAR)?. Identical to the DFDR data frames. Data frames with additional information. Video data frames. Audio data frames.

What is the purpose of the Data Loading Selector (DLS)?. To select the computer on which data will be loaded. To upload or download data. To stow data disks. To route data between the disk unit and target computer.

The Flight Data Interface and Management Unit (FDIMU) combines two functions: the Flight Data Interface Unit (FDIU) and the ____________. Data Management Unit (DMU). Quick Access Recorder (QAR). System Data Acquisition Concentrator (SDAC). Linear Accelerometer (LA).

The FDIU-part of the FDIMU converts, compares, and checks the input parameters for the Digital Flight Data Recorder (DFDR), optional Quick Access Recorder (QAR), and the Digital AIDS Recorder (DAR). This conversion process is crucial for data ____________. recording. transmission. storage. analysis.

The DFDR stores data for the last ____________ hours, with each data frame containing information from one second of flight. 24. 48. 25. 72.

The Quick Access Recorder (QAR) records the same data parameters as the DFDR but is primarily used for on-ground performance, maintenance, and condition monitoring tasks. It also includes Built-In Test Equipment (BITE) functions to ensure data ____________. accuracy. integrity. encryption. compression.

The LA generates an analog signal, which is then digitalized and sent to the FDIU-part through an ____________ bus. Ethernet. USB. ARINC 429. HDMI.

The Data Loading Selector (DLS) is responsible for selecting the ____________ on which data will be loaded during maintenance processes. computer. technician. disk drive. software.

The Multipurpose Disk Drive Unit (MDDU) is used to upload or download data, and it has a stowage box with a maximum capacity of ____________ data disks. 12. 24. 36. 42.

The FDIU-part of the FDIMU records data frames for the Digital Flight Data Recorder (DFDR), Quick Access Recorder (QAR), and Digital AIDS Recorder (DAR). True. False.

The DFDR stores data for up to 48 hours, with each data frame containing information from one second of flight. True. False.

The Quick Access Recorder (QAR) primarily records data for in-flight analysis and crash recording purposes. True. False.

The Linear Accelerometer (LA) measures acceleration in all three axes, with a range of measurement from -3 to +6 g in the vertical (Z) axis. True. False.

What controls the gear and door sequencing in the Airbus A320 family aircraft?. Landing Gear Control and Interface Units (LGCIU). Landing Gear. Gravity extension crank handle. ABCU.

When does the active LGCIU change in the extension/retraction system?. After each gear cycle. During a DOWN selection. When a failure occurs in the active LGCIU. When the LGCIUs are electrically segregated.

In what conditions is normal braking obtained?. With the parking brake OFF. When gear control lever is set to UP. Without green hydraulic pressure. With A/SKID switch OFF.

When is electrical control for normal braking obtained?. In flight when the gear control lever is set to UP. On the ground by the auto brake system. When the green hydraulic pressure is available. Through the pedals.

What system energizes the alternate brake system in the Airbus A320 family aircraft?. Green hydraulic system. Brake accumulator. Normal brake system. Parking Brake control switch.

When does the ABCU become active in the alternate brake system?. When normal brake system is defective. When the A/SKID & N/W STeeRinG switch is OFF. When the green system has low hydraulic pressure. When the BSCU is working properly.

What happens if there is a BSCU failure or low pressure in the hydraulic systems in relation to the anti-skid function?. The pilot must use the triple pressure indicator to control brake pressure. The ABCU sets a minimum limit of 1000 PSI for brake pressure. The anti-skid function is lost, and braking is unavailable. The A/SKID & N/W STeeRinG switch is disabled.

How many full brake pedal applications can be done with the accumulator pressure alone?. 3. 7. 5. Unlimited.

What are the limits for the N/WS angle controlled by the BSCU?. Rudder pedals: max 6 degrees; Hand wheels: max 74 degrees. Rudder pedals: max 10 degrees; Hand wheels: max 50 degrees. Rudder pedals: max 5 degrees; Hand wheels: max 80 degrees. Rudder pedals: max 8 degrees; Hand wheels: max 60 degrees.

What does the Brake Temperature Monitoring Unit (BTMU) transmit to the BSCU?. Brake temperature data. Hydraulic pressure. Brake pedal inputs. Brake accumulator pressure.

If a failure occurs in the active LGCIU, the __________ LGCIU becomes active. secondary. standby. duplicate. alternate.

Normal braking is obtained when: - The green hydraulic pressure is available, - The Anti/SKID and Nose/Wheel Steering control switch is in the __________ position, - The Parking Brake control switch is in the OFF position. ON. OFF. STANDBY. ALTERNATE.

Electrical control is obtained: - Through the pedals, - Automatically on the ground by the auto brake system, - In flight when the gear control lever is set to __________ (in-flight braking). UP. DOWN. OFF. ON.

The alternate brake system is energized by the __________ hydraulic system. Green. Yellow. Red. Blue.

Under what conditions does the ABCU get automatically activated?. When the anti-skid is fault. When the A/SKID switch is selected to OFF (BSCU OFF). When the BSCU is serviceable. When the pressure downstream the selector valve drops below a given pressure.

What functions can be controlled by the landing gear panel in the Airbus A320?. Brake accumulator pressure. Anti-skid and nose wheel steering. Parking brake electrical control. Tachometer readings.

How do the BSCU and ABCU receive inputs from the landing gear panel?. Wirelessly. Through hydraulic connections. Electrically. Pneumatically.

What information does the triple indicator provide in the Airbus A320?. Landing gear panel status. Brake accumulator supply pressure. Brake assembly version. Brake temperature readings.

When does the parking brake control valve override all other braking modes?. When the parking brake handle is closed. When normal braking is unavailable. When the pedals are depressed. When the pressure commanded by the pedal deflection exceeds the pressure delivered by the park brake system.

Which hydraulic system supplies the brake accumulator?. Normal hydraulic system. Yellow hydraulic system. Alternate hydraulic system. Green hydraulic system.

What is the primary function of the brake accumulator in the Airbus A320 braking system?. Control landing gear deployment. Supply pressure to the alternate brake system. Regulate brake temperature. Operate the parking brake.

The landing gear panel includes a toggle switch for antiskid and nose wheel steering function inhibition. True. False.

The triple indicator provides pressure indication for the left and right brake units when PARKING BRAKE is set to ON. True. False.

Each main wheel of the Airbus A320 has pneumatic brakes. True. False.

The parking brake electrical control valve is manually operated by the pilot. True. False.

The brake accumulator is primarily supplied from the green hydraulic system. True. False.

What is the purpose of an ANNunciator LighT test?. To control the cockpit lighting. To control the cabin lighting. To test the aircraft engines. To operate the landing lights.

How are ANN LTs supplied with power in an emergency?. From AC1 supply. From AC2 supply. From 115 VAC STATic INVerter bus. From ESSential supply.

Where are ANN LT TEST AND INTERFACE BOARDS located?. In the cockpit. In the avionics compartment. In the passenger cabin. In the engine room.

How many relays supply the ANN LTs when the switch 33LP is in the TEST position?. 1 relay. 2 relays. 4 relays. 10 relays.

Where is the COCKPIT ANN LT SWITCH located?. In the avionics compartment. On the overhead control panel. In the cabin. 2000 VU Panel.

How are cabin lights controlled in the aircraft?. Through the Cabin Intercommunication Data System. Through the landing gear. Through the cockpit controls. Through the engine system.

What is the purpose of DEUs in controlling cabin lights?. To control the engine. To control the cockpit lights. To control the fluorescent lamps. To control the landing gear.

How many strobe lights are installed at each wingtip and tail cone?. One strobe light. Two strobe lights. Three strobe lights. Four strobe lights.

What does the "STROBE LT OFF" ECAM memo message indicate?. The strobe lights are malfunctioning. The strobe lights are on. The strobe lights are off. The strobe lights are dimming.

. What triggers the NEOL indication on the strobe light assemblies?. A landing gear malfunction. The strobe lights are on. The strobe lights are off. The strobe lights are near the end of their useful life.

What is the purpose of wing and engine scan lights?. To signal to air traffic control. To illuminate the wings and engine air intake. To control the landing gear. To provide light for passengers.

The ANN LT TEST AND INTERFACE BOARDS are located in the passenger cabin. True. False.

The COCKPIT ANN LT SWITCH has only two positions: DIM and BRT. True. False.

DEUs control the cabin fluorescent lamps based on signals from the FAP. True. False.

The entry fluorescent lamps can be controlled with buttons on the Passengers Service Unit (PSU). True. False.

The passenger reading lights are adjustable to different brightness levels. True. False.

The NEOL indication on the wingtip light assemblies indicates that the lights are at the end of their useful life. True. False.

What is the composition of the ADIRS?. Three Air Data Inertial Reference Units (ADIRUs). Two Air Data Reference (ADR) units. Four Inertial Reference (IR) units. One Air Data Module (ADM).

How are ADIRUs interfaced with the Mode Selector Unit MSU?. Via AOA, TAT, and ADM inputs. Via PFDs, NDs, and ECAM SD. Via FACs, WXR system, and DDRMI. Via Air Traffic Control (ATC) system and ISA.

What are the inputs for the ADM?. One pressure input and several discrete inputs. Two pressure inputs and one discrete input. Multiple pressure inputs only. Single pressure input only.

What does the ADM output to the ADIRU?. ARINC bus with digital pressure information. Analog signal with temperature data. GPS coordinates and altitude information. Radio Magnetic Indicator (RMI) data.

How are gyros and accelerometers attached in a strapdown IRS?. Solidly attached to the aircraft structure. Attached to the wings of the aircraft. Suspended freely within the aircraft. Mounted on the cockpit dashboard.

What does the ring laser gyro measure?. Inertial rotation data. Magnetic field strength. Air temperature variations. GPS signal strength.

How do ring laser gyros measure rotation?. By detecting differences in laser beam frequencies. By analyzing magnetic field variations. By measuring changes in air pressure. By tracking GPS satellite positions.

What is the primary output of the ring laser gyros?. Digital altitude data. Analog rotation information. Magnetic heading information. Inertial velocity measurements.

What do the accelerometers in the ADIRUs provide?. Linear accelerations. Barometric altitude data. Air temperature variations. Aircraft ground speed.

How is the acceleration signal processed in the ADIRUs?. Sent to an analog/digital converter. Transmitted directly to the MMR units. Converted into GPS coordinates. Sent to the Weather Radar system.

How is the ILS descent axis determined?. By the intersection of a Localizer and Glide Slope beam. By GPS coordinates. By analyzing air pressure variations. By the aircraft's altitude.

What is the primary function of the ILS (Instrument Landing System)?. Supply signals transmitted by ground stations. Provide GPS coordinates. Measure atmospheric corrections. Control air traffic in the vicinity of the airport.

How is a descent axis determined in the ILS?. By the intersection of a Localizer beam and Glide Slope beam. By analyzing the aircraft's altitude. By measuring magnetic field variations. By tracking GPS satellite positions.

What is the primary purpose of the GPS (Global Positioning System)?. Provide accurate navigation information. Control air traffic. Measure atmospheric pressure variations. Transmit signals to ILS ground stations.

How is the GPS spatial segment composed in terms of satellite arrangement?. 24 satellites in six separate orbital planes. 12 satellites in one orbital plane. 48 satellites in 12 orbital planes. 6 satellites in a single orbital plane.

Where are the Multi-mode Receivers (MMR) typically located on the aircraft?. In the forward avionics bay 90VU. In the cockpit dashboard. On the wings of the aircraft. In the upper fuselage near the GPS antennas.

What are the external sensors that provide inputs to the ADIRUs in the ADIRS system?. Angle Of Attack (AOA), Total Air Temperature (TAT), and Air Data Module (ADM). Static Air Temperature (SAT), International Standard Atmosphere (ISA), and Total Air Temperature (TAT). Static ports, Pitot probes, and AOA sensors. GPS coordinates, ground speed, and altitude.

What are the primary components of the WXR and PWS system?. Weather radar transceiver and weather antenna drive. Aircraft engines and landing gear. Avionics bay and ILS. Weather radar transmitter/receiver and dual weather radar control unit.

How is the weather radar image displayed on the navigation displays (NDs)?. Independently on the CAPT ND only. Independently on the F/O ND only. Independently on both CAPT and F/O NDs. Not displayed on NDs.

What precautions must be taken before using the Weather Radar (WXR) system on the ground in specific modes?. Ensure the aircraft is refueled within 100 m. Maintain a 1.5 m clearance from the antenna. Avoid metallic obstacles within 5 m arc of ± 90°. Operate the system in any weather conditions.

Why should the WINDSHEAR AUTO/OFF selector switch be selected OFF when not in use?. To conserve power. To avoid nuisance aural alerts. To improve ground surveillance. To enhance weather radar performance.

The PWS function detects the windshear event if measurable ____ occurs during the event. precipitation. turbulence. wind speed. disturbances.

The primary components of the WXR/PWS system include a weather radar transceiver, a dual weather radar control unit, a single weather antenna drive, a weather radar antenna, and a weather radar _____. transmitter/receiver. receiver. display unit. transmitter.

Special precautions must be taken before using the Weather Radar (WXR) system on the ground in MAP, WX, or WINDSHEAR mode. The dangerous zone forward of the aircraft must be free of metallic obstacles such as hangars or aircraft, within 5 m in an arc of + or - 90º on either side of the aircraft _____. direction. radar. nose. centerline.

Why is the crew oxygen system used?. To supply oxygen during normal flight. To supply oxygen during cabin pressurization loss. To supply oxygen during passenger emergencies. To supply oxygen to the cabin attendants.

How is the pressure of the oxygen cylinder indicated to the crew?. By a pressure regulator. By a direct-reading pressure gauge. By a pressure switch. By a low-pressure warning light.

Under what conditions do the passenger oxygen masks automatically deploy?. When the cabin altitude exceeds 14,000 feet. When the cabin altitude is below 10,000 feet. When a passenger pushes the MASK MANual ON button. When a crew member pushes the MASK MANual ON button.

What happens when the TiMeR RESET pushbutton is pushed in the passenger oxygen system?. The masks retract automatically. The electrical system is rearmed. The passenger address system is activated. The oxygen supply is shut off.

What initiates the chemical generation in the oxygen masks?. Pulling the mask towards the user's face. Pressing the oxygen supply button. Opening the container door. Pushing the ON white light.

How many Crew oxygen bottles the A320 Neo has?. 1. 3. 2. None.

What is the purpose of the tamper seal in the portable oxygen container?. To indicate the oxygen level. To indicate if the PBE is operational. To show if the container is properly sealed. To signal low oxygen pressure.

The oxygen system includes: the crew system, the passenger system & the portable system. the crew system, the passenger system & the ground system. the portable system. None all above.

The flight crew oxygen system is used if there is a loss of cabin pressurization or ____________ in the cockpit. Fire. Water. Smoke. Smoke and dangerous gases.

The high-pressure portable cylinder includes continuous-flow type masks and supplies first aid oxygen to ____________. the passengers. the cargo hold,. the overhead bins. the cabin attendants.

There are two types of chemical generators supplying oxygen for 15 minutes or 22 minutes. True. False.

The Portable Breathing Equipment (PBE) is designed to help crew members and cabin attendants extinguish fires by supplying oxygen. True. False.

The high-pressure portable cylinder supplies oxygen to passengers in case of an emergency. True. False.

The flight crew oxygen is supplied from a high-pressure oxygen cylinder at a pressure of 127.5 bar (1.850 psig). True. False.

The oxygen cylinder in the flight crew oxygen system is installed in a cradle with two quick-release clamps in the R/H avionics compartment. True. False.

Low-pressure safety outlets are part of the safety devices that protect the crew oxygen system. True. False.

What are the primary purposes of the pneumatic system on the Airbus A320?. Air conditioning and engine start. Fuel Tank Inerting System and pressurization. Anti-icing and ground power unit supply. All of the above.

When can high-pressure air be supplied to the pneumatic system from external ground sources?. Only during engine start. Only during anti-icing procedures. Both on the ground and in flight. Never.

Which engine compressor stages supply bleed air to the pneumatic system?. Only HP stage. Only IP stage. Both IP and HP stages. Neither IP nor HP stage.

What is the purpose of the High-Pressure Bleed Valve (HPV)?. To maintain high pressure in the pneumatic system. To supply air when engines are at low power. To regulate the temperature of the bleed air. To monitor system pressure.

Where is the Pressure Regulating Valve (PRV) installed in the pneumatic system?. Upstream of the IP bleed valve. Downstream of the HP bleed valve. Downstream of the IP and HP bleed valves. Upstream of the High Pressure Bleed Valve (HPV).

Which components of the pneumatic system are primarily installed on the engines and in the pylons?. Pressure regulation components. Temperature regulation components. Leak detection components. Crossbleed valve components.

What happens if one Bleed Monitoring Computer (BMC) fails?. The associated FAULT light is lost. The associated bleed valve closes automatically. The overpressure warning is activated. Both BMCs exchange data via ARINC bus.

The temperature of the engine bleed air is regulated by passing it through an air-to-air heat exchanger called the ________________. precooler. fan discharge. crossbleed. APU supply.

Both Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMCs) receive signals from the leak detection loops. They exchange data via an ARINC bus for wing double loop detection. The wing loops A are connected to BMC 1, and wing loops B are connected to BMC 2. The crosstalk bus allows wing leak warnings to be activated through an ________________. OR logic. XOR logic. AND logic. NOT logic.

How is the engine air bleed pressure pneumatically regulated in the Airbus A320 family of aircraft?. High Pressure (HP) Valve (VLV), Pressure Regulating Valve (PRV). Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMCs), Wing Anti-Ice (WAI). Pressure Regulating Valve (PRV), High Pressure (HP) Valve (VLV). Wing Anti-Ice (WAI), Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMCs).

When does the HP VLV pneumatically regulate the air supply, and within what pressure range does it operate?. At low engine speed, 8 to 36 psi. At high engine speed, 44 to 85 psi. At idle, 110 to 240 psi. At high altitude, 15,000 ft to 35,000 ft.

What is the primary function of the IP check valve, and when does it come into play?. Protects the IP stage from reverse flow when HP VLV is open. Regulates the pressure downstream from the PRV. Monitors engine fire at 450°C. Controls bleed pressure at high altitude.

Describe the two operating modes of the PRV control solenoid and the conditions under which each is used. Pneumatic mode for reverse flow protection, electrical mode for ENGine BLEED P/B OFF. Pneumatic mode for overpressure, electrical mode for engine fire. Pneumatic mode for engine fire, electrical mode for altitude > 15,000 ft. Pneumatic mode for delta pressure, electrical mode for precooler temperature.

The engine air bleed pressure is pneumatically regulated by the __________ when air is supplied by the HP stage, or by the __________ when the air is supplied by the Intermediate Pressure (IP) stage. High Pressure (HP) Valve (VLV), Pressure Regulating Valve (PRV). Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMCs), Wing Anti-Ice (WAI). Pressure Regulating Valve (PRV), High Pressure (HP) Valve (VLV). Wing Anti-Ice (WAI), Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMCs).

The CFM56-5B engine is a single-rotor, fixed stator, lowbypass-ratio turbo-fan power plant. True. False.

A ground cart may supply the pneumatic system, and the supply duct is located on the left-hand side of the cross bleed valve. Only the LH bleed system is supplied when the XBLEED selector is in the ____________ position for ground air supply. OFF. AUTO. OPEN. SHUT.

When the X-BLEED selector is in the SHUT position, the ground air supply will be available to supply the LH and RH systems ____________. simultaneously. independently. alternately. occasionally.

The leak detection system is used to detect leaks in the vicinity of the packs, wings, pylons, and APU hot air ducts. Each wing is monitored by a double loop, and the pylon and APU hot air ducts are monitored by a ____________ loop. dual. redundant. single. triple.

The APU bleed air supplies the pneumatic system through the APU bleed valve if the APU is ____________. operational. running. stopped. in standby mode.

What are the three subsystems that make up the water and waste system on Airbus A320 Family aircraft?. Fuel system, electrical system, hydraulic system. Potable water system, waste water system, toilet system. Navigation system, communication system, entertainment system. Landing gear system, engine system, avionics system.

Where is the potable water tank located in the A318, A319, and A321 aircraft?. In the galleys. In the forward cargo compartment. In the aft cargo compartment. In the lavatories.

Where is the potable water tank located in the A320 aircraft?. In the forward cargo compartment. In the aft cargo compartment. In the aft bulk cargo. In the galleys zone.

Which aircraft in the Airbus A320 Family has a different location for the potable water tank compared to the others?. A318. A319. A320. A321.

What controls the potable water service panel heating, especially in winter conditions?. thermostat. The Flight Attendant Panel (FAP). The vacuum toilet system. The water tank.

Where are the water and waste indications displayed for the flight attendants?. On the cockpit display. On the passenger seats. On the Flight Attendant Panel (FAP). On the aircraft's exterior.

How is used water from the lavatory washbasins and galley sinks discarded in the waste water system?. Stored in a separate tank. Discharged overboard outside. Stored in the cargo compartment. Converted into drinking water.

What feature is integrated into the drain masts of the waste water system to prevent ice formation?. Heated tapes. Compressed air. Vacuum generator. Electric heating elements.

What type of system does the toilet system on Airbus A320 Family aircraft use for flushing?. Hydraulic system. Electrical system. Potable water system. Differential pressure toilet system.

What happens when the waste holding tank is full in the toilet system?. The waste is automatically ejected. The toilet system shuts down. The waste is recycled. The waste is diverted to the potable water tank.

What provides the necessary differential pressure in the waste system to move waste from the toilet bowl to the tank at low altitude or on the ground?. The cabin air pressure. A vacuum generator. The waste holding tank. The toilet bowl.

Which system controls the flushing system operation and stops it when the waste servicing panel is open?. The Flight Attendant Panel (FAP). The potable water system. The Vacuum System Controller Function (VSCF). The waste holding tank.

Where is the waste holding tank located in the aircraft?. In the lavatories. In the forward cargo compartment. Behind the bulk cargo compartment. In the galleys.

What components are included in the waste holding tank?. A vacuum generator, a liquid level sensor, and a flush control unit. A water separator, a liquid level transmitter, and an ice prevention system. A waste drain valve, two rinse line connections, and a liquid level sensor. A potable water tank, a vacuum system controller, and a heating element.

What can be insulated in the waste holding tank system as an option?. The vacuum generator. The toilet bowl. The potable water tank. The lines between the tank and the service pane.

Why are the lines between the waste holding tank and the service panel insulated and heated?. To keep the waste warm. To prevent freezing and ice formation. To improve waste disposal efficiency. To save energy.

What controls and monitors the system functions and related electric components in the vacuum toilet system?. The Flight Attendant Panel (FAP). The waste holding tank. The Flush Control Unit (FCU). The Cabin Intercommunication Data System (CIDS).

The power plant installation includes the engine, the engine inlet, the exhaust, and the fan cowls only. True. False.

The water and waste indications are displayed automatically as soon as the service panel is open. True. False.

On the Flight Attendant Panel (FAP), the filling quantity cannot be selected as an option. True. False.

There is only one control handle on the water service panel. True. False.

On the A320, the overflow valve opens mechanically when the fill/drain control handle is set to the drain position. True. False.

When does the "Overflow Valve Light" come on, and what does it indicate when the valve is in the open position?. The "Overflow Valve Light" comes on during draining, indicating that the valve is closed. The "Overflow Valve Light" comes on during filling, indicating that the valve is open. The "Overflow Valve Light" comes on when the air compressor is activated. The "Overflow Valve Light" comes on when the tank is empty.

The Fill/Drain control handle is initially positioned to "drain" when filling the water tank. True. False.

The "Green Tank Full Light" comes on when the tank is empty. True. False.

What happens when the toilet service panel door is open on the ground?. All toilet operations are stopped through DEU B. Flush signals are inhibited. The vacuum generator starts automatically. The waste holding tank is drained.

What is the primary purpose of the drain control handle located at the service panel?. Initiating the vacuum generator. Controlling cabin pressurization. Initiating waste holding tank draining. Activating the DEU B.

When is the drain control handle used during ground service?. To activate the vacuum generator valve. To stop all toilet operations. To initiate cabin pressurization. To operate the vacuum generator motor.

What is the purpose of opening the cap of the waste drain connection during the servicing process?. To check for leaks from the waste drain connection. To connect the toilet service vehicle drain hose. To flush the waste tank with desinfectant solution. To activate the vacuum system.

The Fuel Tank Inerting System (FTIS) includes two subsystems: The Fuel Tank Ventilation System (FTVS). The Air Conditioning System (ACS). The Engine Bleed Air System (EBAS). The Airplane Mode Selector (AMS).

The CSAS gets hot air from the Engine bleed air system and decreases its temperature to a level compatible with the IGGS sub-system. The CSAS Inert Gas Generation System (IGGS). The CSAS Conditioned Service Air System (CSAS). The CSAS Engine Bleed Air System (EBAS). The CSAS Air Conditioning System (ACS).

Engine 1 is the primary bleed source and Eng 2, through the X Bleed valve, is the secondary bleed source. Engine 1 is the secondary bleed source. Engine 2 is the primary bleed source. Engine 2 is the secondary bleed source. Engine 1 is the primary bleed source.

The bypass valve is installed in the heat exchanger bypass duct and is controlled by the CSAS. The bypass valve adds cold air downstream of the heat exchanger. The bypass valve adds cold air downstream of the heat exchanger. The bypass valve controls the ozone converter. The bypass valve is not used in the CSAS.

If there is over-pressure or over-temperature, the CSAS isolation valve closes to stop the system. The CSAS isolation valve opens to release pressure. The CSAS isolation valve remains unaffected by temperature changes. The CSAS isolation valve closes in normal operation. The CSAS isolation valve has no impact on pressure.

In normal operation, the CSAS isolation valve is open to let the air go through the ozone converter. The CSAS isolation valve remains closed. The CSAS isolation valve opens after the ozone converter. The CSAS isolation valve opens after the heat exchanger. The CSAS isolation valve is not used in normal operation.

If a failure of the CSAS system occurs, the status message "INERT FAULT" will come into view only in flight phase 1 and 10, for maintenance. The status message appears in all flight phases. The status message appears only in flight phase 2. The status message appears only in flight phase 1 and 10. The status message never appears.

The MEL tells that the A/C can be dispatched with the system unserviceable for 10 days with no maintenance procedure. The MEL allows dispatch with unlimited unserviceable days. The MEL requires maintenance immediately. The MEL allows a 10-day dispatch without maintenance. The MEL does not mention dispatch conditions.

In normal operation, the bleed air is filtered by the. CSAS and D-ULPA filter. HPGC door and ASM. ICU and DFSOV. ASM and HPGC door.

Downstream of the D-ULPA filter, air parameters are sent to. DFSOV and ASM. ICU and ASM. Oxygen sensor and ASM. HPGC door and DFSOV.

In abnormal operation, if there is overpressure or overtemperature, the ICU de-energizes the. IGGS Isolation Gate Valve solenoid and the DFSOV solenoid. HPGC door and ASM. DFSOV solenoid and the oxygen sensor. Oxygen sensor and the ASM.

If the oxygen sensor senses an oxygen rate higher than 12% during abnormal operation, the ICU de-energizes the. DFSOV solenoid and the IGGS Isolation Gate Valve solenoid. ASM and HPGC door. HPGC door and the DFSOV solenoid. IGGS Isolation Gate Valve solenoid and the oxygen sensor.

The ASM is the core of the Inert Gas Generation System, and it removes oxygen to produce. Oxygen Enriched Air (OEA) and Nitrogen Enriched Air (NEA). Hydrocarbons and dust. Oxygen and hydrocarbons. OEA and HPGC door.

An ASM is a semi-permeable hollow-fiber membrane bundle contained in a. Pressure containment canister. D-ULPA filter. CSAS. HPGC door.

In normal operation, the DFSOV is __________ and isolates the IGGS from the center fuel tank. open. closed. partially open. malfunctioning.

The ICU supplies the two solenoids of the DFSOV to control the DFSOV position (OPEN/CLOSE) and to control the NEA flow _______. LOW. HIGH. MI. LOW/MI/HIGH.

What is the primary function of the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU)?. Electrical power generation. Engine thrust. Fuel storage. Wing anti-ice.

Besides electrical power, what else does the APU provide?. Engine cooling. Air conditioning in-flight. Navigation assistance. Oxygen supply.

When does the air intake flap open and close?. Opens when APU is ON, closes when OFF. Opens during landing, closes during takeoff. Opens during takeoff, closes during landing. Opens when the main engines are running.

What is the purpose of the air intake flap?. Engine cooling. Reducing noise. Pneumatic supply. Preventing fires.

Where is the APU installed on the aircraft?. In the cockpit. In the wing. In the fuselage tail cone. In the landing gear.

How is vibration transmission reduced between the APU and the aircraft structure?. Through tie rods. Through isolators. Through exhaust muffler. Through air intake.

How is the APU attached to the structure brackets in the APU compartment ceiling?. Through tie rods. Through bolts. Through welding. Through adhesive.

What is the purpose of the vibration isolators in the APU mounting system?. To increase vibration. To reduce noise, prevent transmission of vibrations. To transfer vibrations to the aircraft structure. To connect to the APU threepoint mounting system.

What is the primary purpose of the drain system in the APU compartment?. To collect fluids for reuse. To prevent fluid accumulation. To supply water for aircraft cleaning. To collect APU exhaust gases.

How are fluids collected and removed from the APU compartment?. Through a drain mast. Through an APU exhaust pipe. Through an APU cooling system. Through an APU fuel line.

The Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) is a constant-speed ________ engine. electric. jet. gas turbine. propeller.

The APU provides electrical power for the aircraft systems, bleed air for various functions, and bleed air cutoff above the specified ________ limit. altitude. temperature. manufacturer. speed.

The air intake flap opens when the APU MASTER SWITCH is set to ON and closes when the MASTER SWITCH is set to OFF and the APU ________. When open, it supplies air to the APU inlet for combustion and pneumatic supply. starts. stalls. accelerates. stops.

In case of failure, the air intake flap can be opened or closed manually by a manual ________ device. override. control. lever. switch.

The APU is installed in a fireproof compartment located in the fuselage ________ cone. wing. tail. nose. cockpit.

Vibration isolators are installed between the APU mount brackets and the tie rods to reduce the transmission of A/C vibrations and shocks to the APU. The isolators also prevent the transmission of vibrations from the APU to the A/C ________. wings. engines. structure. cockpit.

The air intake system ducts ambient air to the APU plenum chamber. An air intake flap cuts off the air supply when the APU does not operate. In case of failure, the air intake flap can be opened or closed manually by a manual ________ device. override. control. lever. switch.

The air intake duct, which is composed of a diffuser and elbow, provides correct airflow to the APU plenum. The air intake duct is attached to the ________ access door. left. right. top. rear.

The exhaust system lets the APU exhaust gas flow into the atmosphere and muffles the ________ from the exhaust. The exhaust muffler thermal insulation protects the A/C structure. smoke. noise. heat. vibration.

The exhaust muffler thermal insulation protects the A/C ________. wings. engines. structure. cockpit.

Two access doors allow access to the APU compartment. The access doors on the bottom of the tail cone open ________ to allow the APU to be inspected, lifted, and lowered. inward. outward. upward. downward.

Two access doors allow access to the APU compartment. The access doors on the bottom of the tail cone open outward to allow the APU to be inspected, lifted, and ________. secured. fixed. raised. lowered.

A drain system prevents the collection of fluids in the APU compartment. Any fluid that may accumulate in the APU compartment is delivered to a ________ mast. Some of the fluids are collected in a drain tank in the APU compartment, which is emptied through the drain mast when the A/C is above 200 kt. fuel. drain. water. hydraulic.

The Structure Repair Manual is a customized document exclusive to specific airlines. True. False.

The introduction chapter of the SRM provides airplane information such as Weight Variant and Airplane Allocation List. True. False.

The weight variant given in the Airplane allocation list always represents the current status of the aircraft. True. False.

For permanent repairs with inspection program, inspections are not quoted along with the repair. True. False.

Each subject within the SRM uses a four-element numbering system. True. False.

What is the first document to use to assess damage on the aircraft structure?. Aircraft Operation Manual. Pilot's Handbook. Structure Repair Manual. Maintenance Manual.

Where is general information or information applicable to more than one chapter included in the SRM?. Chapter 50. Chapter 51. Chapter 52. Chapter 53.

In the "MOD/Definition Comparison" service, what does the "Aircraft status" criterion allow you to filter by?. The family of the aircraft. The type of aircraft. The status of the aircraft (e.g. delivered or to be delivered). The owner ICAO code of the aircraft.

What is the primary purpose of the Structure Repair Manual (SRM)?. To provide a list of all Airbus aircraft models. To provide guidelines on how to repair aircraft. To provide a history of Airbus. To provide a list of all aircraft manufacturers.

How is the SRM organized?. By aircraft model. By type of damage. By ATA specification. By date of publication.

What is the significance of 'Allowable Damage'?. It indicates damage that requires immediate repair. It indicates damage that can be ignored. It indicates damage that can be temporarily tolerated without immediate repair. It indicates damage that has been repaired previously.

What does a 'gouge' refer to?. A line of damage. A damage area resulting in a cross-sectional change. A mark caused by a sharp object. A series of scratches.

What causes 'corrosion'?. Physical impact. Chemical or electro-chemical effect. Exposure to high temperatures. Regular wear and tear.

Which factors determine the type of surface protection for components?. Material and Function. Material, Function, and Location. Function and Location. Only Material.

Which of the following is NOT an exception to external areas having surface protection?. Leading edges of slats. APU exhaust. Wing flaps. Cabin Pressurization Control System Outflow Valve.

What is the definition of corrosion?. Enhancement of metals. Destruction of metals by chemical effect. Strengthening of metals. Natural wear and tear of metals.

Which of the following is NOT a step necessary for satisfactory control of corrosion?. Regular maintenance. Applying heat. Initial identification of corrosion. Complete removal of corrosion when it occurs.

Which of the following is NOT a corrosive agent?. Acids. Alkalies. Pure water. Salts.

Which atmosphere can cause special problems due to the presence of oxidized sulphur and nitrogen compounds?. Marine Atmosphere. Industrial Atmosphere. Tropical Atmosphere. Desert Atmosphere.

How many main zones are the internal areas of an aircraft divided into, in terms of surface protection?. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Which of the following is NOT a group of protective treatment mentioned?. Pretreatment. Paint coatings. Special coatings. Heat treatments.

What is the primary purpose of pretreatment of materials?. To add color to the materials. To increase weight. To increase corrosion-resistant properties and provide a good surface for paint adhesion. To make the material shiny.

What is the primary cause of corrosion in the general atmosphere?. Lack of oxygen. Excess of nitrogen. Moisture and oxygen. Carbon dioxide.

Which of the following is NOT a s.tep necessary for satisfactory control of corrosion?. Regular maintenance. Applying heat. Initial identification of corrosion. Complete removal of corrosion when it occurs.

The fastener contact area of the tool must be rough and textured. True. False.

A clear indication of a loose fastener is when the head of a fastener is rolled upwards at its periphery. True. False.

If a fastener is suspected to be loose, it should be ignored until the next maintenance cycle. True. False.

The use of a washer under a nut/collar is only permitted when used in the original construction. True. False.

It's always recommended to use two washers instead of one under the nut/collar. True. False.

The hand hammering method is the most recommended method for installing rivets in the aircraft structure. True. False.

What is the primary concern when drilling titanium due to its nature?. Its flexibility. Its hardness. Its lightness. Its transparency.

What should be checked regarding the drilling equipment?. The color of the drill. The weight of the drill. Wear of bearings and spindle concentricity. The brand of the drill.

Which of the following is NOT an indication of drilling problems?. Different amounts of swarf emerging from flutes. Drill turning blue. Outer corners of drill breaking off. Drill making a humming sound.

Which of the following is NOT a method used for the installation of rivets?. Continuous squeeze riveting process. Pneumatic hammering. Electric drilling. Hand hammering.

What is the recommended hole pitch value for a nonpressure tight joint in aluminum alloy assemblies?. 2 to 3D. 3 to 4D. 4 to 6D. 5 to 7D.

For aluminum rivets installed in aluminum alloy assemblies with a thickness of 1.2 mm or thicker, what is the recommended edge distance value in terms of 'D'?. Minimum 1.5 x 'D'. Minimum 2.0 x 'D'. Minimum 2.5 x 'D'. Minimum 3.0 x 'D'.

What is the primary benefit of the cold expansion process?. It increases the weight of metal structures. It increases the fatigue life of metal structures. It increases the temperature resistance of metal structures. It increases the elasticity of metal structures.

By how much does the hole diameter increase as a result of the expansion process?. One to two percent. Two to four percent. Three to five percent. Five to seven percent.

Which of the following is NOT a step in the cold expansion of holes in aluminum alloy structure?. Drilling a start hole. Painting the cold expanded hole. Reaming the start hole. Cold expanding the start hole.

If the maximum oversize of a hole following cold expansion is exceeded, what should be done?. Ignore the discrepancy. Fill the hole with a sealant. Contact AIRBUS. Re-drill the hole.

Why is it recommended to use a lubricant when drilling aluminum alloys?. To make the drill shiny. To help remove swarf and reduce heat build-up. To make the hole bigger. To color the aluminum.

After rivets are installed, why is inspection necessary?. To ensure the joint is tight and rivets are correctly formed. To check the color of the rivets. To ensure the rivets are shiny. To measure the length of the rivets.

Which of the following can indicate a loose fastener?. A shiny spot around the fastener. A red mark on the fastener. A black or dark grey stain adjacent to the fastener head. The fastener making a sound.

What is the primary purpose of using a countersunk fastener?. To provide a decorative finish. To give a smooth surface. To strengthen the material. To increase the weight of the material.

Which of the following is NOT a type of tool used to produce the countersunk recess?. A countersink bit with an integral pilot pin. A countersink bit with a replaceable pilot pin. A countersink tool with a builtin hammer. An adjustable countersink tool with a replaceable pilot pin.

What should be observed before countersinking?. The color of the material. The minimum part thickness. The brand of the tool. The temperature of the material.

What type of doors are the forward and aft passenger doors of the Airbus A320 Family?. Swing-type doors. Sliding doors. Plug-type doors that open upward, outward, and forward. Hydraulic doors that open automatically.

How do the passenger doors of the Airbus A320 Family open?. Open inward and upward. Swing outward and downward. Open upward, outward, and forward parallel to fuselage. Automatically open and close hydraulically.

What is the purpose of the slide ARMING/DISARMING lever on the passenger doors?. Control cabin temperature. Activate emergency lighting. Disarm the escape slide. Connect the slide to the floor for automatic deployment.

How does the escape slide on the passenger doors deploy in an emergency?. Automatically inflates when the door is opened from the outside. Manually inflated by passenger. Automatically inflates when the slide-arming lever is disarmed. Requires activation by cabin crew.

How many overwing emergency exits are typically found on the Airbus A321?. Two exits. Four exits. Six exits. None of the above.

How can the overwing emergency exits on the A318, A319, and A320 be opened for evacuation?. Only from inside. Only from outside. Both from inside or outside. They cannot be opened for evacuation.

How are the cargo compartment doors of the Airbus A320 Family operated?. Electrically using the yellow system. Manually with a locking handle. Hydraulically using the blue system. Automatically via the cockpit controls.

What is the function of the bulk cargo door on the A320 and A321 aircraft?. Provides access to the avionics compartment. Gives access to the bulk cargo compartment. Opens into the passenger cabin. Acts as an emergency exit.

How are the avionics compartment access doors on the lower fuselage operated?. Manually. Electrically. Automatically. Using a hand pump.

What is the purpose of the Cockpit Door Locking System (CDLS) in the Airbus A320 Family?. Control cabin temperature. Prevent unauthorized cockpit access. Manage the escape slide. Activate the emergency lighting.

How is the cockpit door typically locked when the aircraft is powered?. Manually with a key. Automatically by CDLS. Electronically with a keypad. Physically by flight crew.

What does the cockpit door escape hatch feature, and how is it kept in position?. Contains emergency supplies. Has a locking handle. Includes a keypad for access authorization. Secured with two pip-pins.

What components are part of the Cockpit Door Locking System (CDLS) in the Airbus A320 Family?. Cockpit door panel on the pedestal with a toggle switch. Control cabin temperature. Overhead control unit in cockpit with integrated maintenance annunciators. Electrical release strikes.

What is the purpose of the buzzer located on the cockpit overhead panel?. Control cabin temperature. Prevent unauthorized cockpit access. Activate the emergency lighting. Provide maintenance alerts.

How does the avionics compartment door locking mechanism operate on the Airbus A320 Family aircraft?. Electrically. Manually. Automatically. Using a hand pump.

The escape slide inflates automatically when the slide-arming lever is in the _________ position and the door is opened from the inside. armed. disarmed. closed. locked.

The A321 is equipped with four emergency exit doors located forward and aft of the _________. cockpit. avionics compartment. wing. cargo compartment.

To activate the evacuation system through the overwing emergency exits on the A318, A319, and A320, authorized personnel must _________ the exits from the inside. disarm. lock. open. activate.

The cargo compartment doors on the Airbus A320 Family give access to the forward and aft _________ compartments. cargo. cockpit. avionics compartment. passenger.

In case of electrical failure, the cargo compartment door can be opened manually using a _________. hydraulic system electric pump. hand pump. slide ARMING/DISARMING lever. keypad.

There are _________ avionics compartment access doors on the lower fuselage around the nose landing gear bay. 2. 3. 4. 5.

The locking mechanism for the avionics compartment access doors is _________ on each door. different. identical. electronic. manual.

The cockpit door on the Airbus A320 Family is designed to prevent _________. cabin temperature. hijacking attempts. unauthorized access. mechanical failures.

The cockpit door escape hatch is secured with two _________ to keep it in position. toggle switches. pip-pins. escape slides. keycards.

The A318 and A319 are equipped with two overwing emergency exits, and the A319 can optionally have _________ additional exits. 1. 2. 3. 4.

The avionics compartment access doors on the lower fuselage open _________. inward. outward. upward. downward.

To perform normal door opening from the outside, one must check that the arming lever is in the _________ position and that the cabin pressure indicator is not flashing. disarmed. armed. locked. opened.

In case of emergency opening, the arming lever should be in the _________ position, and after pulling the door control handle rapidly fully up and releasing it, the door opens and locks automatically. armed. locked. disarmed. opened.

How many main parts is the fuselage divided into?. 3. 4. 5. 6.

What are the names of the main parts that make up the fuselage?. Forward, center, rear, cone. Nose, forward, center, rear, cone. Upper, lower, middle, aft, tip. ront, back, middle, aft, end.

How does the length of the A321 forward fuselage compare to the A320, and which frames does the additional section (14A) extend between?. It's eight frame bays longer, extending between Fr 35 and Fr 35.8. It's five frame bays longer, extending between Fr 47 and Fr 47.5. It's three frame bays shorter. It's four frame bays shorter.

The fuselage of the Airbus A320 is divided into five main parts. (True/False). True. False.

The forward fuselage of the A321 is longer by eight frame bays compared to the A320, and it includes an additional section between frames (Fr) 35 and 35.8. (True/False). True. False.

The A319 forward fuselage is four frame bays shorter than the A320. (True/False). True. False.

An additional emergency exit is installed on both sides of the A319 in section 15 to accommodate a cabin capacity of at least 160 passengers. (True/False). True. False.

The nose forward fuselage contains the nose landing gear bay and access and service door cutouts. (True/False). True. False.

The nose landing gear bay is shaped by three machined panels reinforced by horizontal and vertical extruded sections attached to the corresponding frames. (True/False). True. False.

The central panel of the lower fuselage in the nose forward fuselage contains an opening for access between Fr 3 and 5 and the opening for the nose landing gear bay between Fr 9 and 20. (True/False). True. False.

What is the extent of the cone/rear fuselage section, measured in frame numbers?. Fr 65 to Fr 90. Fr 70 to Fr 87. Fr 60 to Fr 80. Fr 50 to Fr 75.

What does the rear pressure bulkhead separate within the fuselage? (Choose all that apply). Pressurized rear fuselage. Cargo compartment. Un-pressurized cone/rear fuselage. Landing gear bay.

How is the tail cone unit connected to section 19?. By four lugs and one spigot. Welded joints. Glue and rivets. Bolted connections.

What is the primary function of the engine pylons installed under each wing?. To support the engine. To house electrical wiring. To support the nacelle. To store fuel.

Which part of the pylon primarily houses most of the systems connected with the engine?. Secondary structure. Primary structure. Fairings. Fan cowl doors.

How many points attach the pylon box to the wing?. 2. 3. 4. 5.

What components make up the stabilizers?. Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer (THS), elevators, vertical stabilizer, and rudder. Engines, pylons, and nacelles. Landing gear and doors. Wings, ailerons, flaps, and slats.

What is the main structure of the Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer (THS)?. Spar boxes. Elevators. Leading edge. Trailing edge.

What are the primary functions of the engine pylons installed under each wing of the aircraft?. To support the engine, to transmit the engine thrust, to enable the routing and attachment of all the systems connected with the engine. To provide additional lift to the aircraft, to house the landing gear, to store fuel. To provide structural support to the wing, to house the pilot, to store luggage. To house the aircraft's avionics, to support the hydraulic system, to provide additional fuel storage.

Where can detailed information about the structure of the nacelle be found? (Choose all that apply). In the aircraft's maintenance manual. In the pylon manufacturer documentation. In the nacelle manufacturer documentation. In the aircraft's flight operations manual.

How many points support the engine on the pylon box?. Two points. One point. Three points. Four points.

The hinge fittings of thrust reverser doors are installed on the forward fairing (secondary structure) of the pylon. True. False.

The pylon box is attached to the wing at two points. True. False.

The aft engine to pylon attach fitting is located at Rib 4 for the CFM 56-5 engine configuration. True. False.

Stabilizers include wings, flaps, slats, and ailerons. True. False.

The adjustment of the angle of incidence of the THS is achieved by a hydraulic actuator. True. False.

There are two spar boxes in the Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer (THS). True. False.

The center joint in the spar box assembly is made from aluminum. True. False.

The leading edge of the Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer (THS) includes avionics and hydraulics. True. False.

The cockpit has four fixed windows: two windshields and two fixed side windows that can be removed from the exterior. True. False.

The sliding windows in the cockpit can only be opened and controlled from the outside of the aircraft. True. False.

Cabin windows consist of a seal, inner and outer panes made of stretched acrylic resin, held together by a seal. True. False.

In normal operation, both the inner and outer panes of cabin windows are pressurized to maintain cabin pressure. True. False.

Circular windows on passenger/crew doors and emergency exit doors are used for inspection and observation. True. False.

The inner pane of door windows is not designed to maintain cabin pressure in case of outer pane failure. True. False.

The cockpit has both fixed and sliding windows. True. False.

The windshield panes in the cockpit are made of hard glass and are not interchangeable between different suppliers. True. False.

The fixed side windows in the cockpit are held by retainers bolted onto the outer surface of the frame. True. False.

The fixed side windows have an integral anti-icing and defogging system. True. False.

The sliding windows in the cockpit can be controlled from inside the cockpit and used as emergency exits. True. False.

The sliding windows have only one layer of glass without interlayers. True. False.

Cabin windows are installed and removed from the inside of the aircraft. True. False.

The inner pane of cabin windows is pressurized in normal operation. True. False.

Door windows are used for inspection and observation to check if the cabin is pressurized or to verify if the outside is clear. True. False.

The outer pane of door windows has a vent hole that allows pressurization only in normal operation. True. False.

The primary function of the sliding windows in an emergency is to act as ______. ventilation. observation points. emergency exits. additional lighting.

The windshields are equipped with an anti-icing and ______ system. anti-fogging. defogging. heating. cooling.

The windshield panes are mounted with retainers on the ______ surface of the frame. inner. outer. top. bottom.

The fixed side windows are installed with an integral ______ system. heating. anti-icing. defogging. cooling.

Cabin windows are installed and removed from ______. the exterior. the inside. either side. the top.

The inner pane of the cabin windows is designed to ______ cabin pressure. increase. decrease. maintain. monitor.

The circular windows help check from outside if the cabin is ______. pressurized. ventilated. illuminated. conditioned.

In case of outer pane failure, the ______ pane is able to maintain the cabin pressure. outer. inner. cockpit. passenger.

The circular windows are essential for verifying if the outside is clear for ______. landing gear deployment. engine start. door opening/slide deployment. air conditioning activation.

Where is the center wing located in the aircraft's fuselage?. Between the main frames Fr 36 and 42. Between the main frames Fr 20 and 30. Between the main frames Fr 1 and 10. In the rear fuselage.

How is maintenance access to the center wing box typically achieved?. Through two rectangular openings in the rear spar. Through triangular openings in the rear spar. Through circular openings in the rear spar. Through the top skin panels of the center wing box.

What fittings ensure the junction between the center wing box and the outer wing box?. Upper cruciform fitting and lower triform fitting. Upper triangular fitting and lower square fitting. Upper circular fitting and lower rectangular fitting. Upper hexagonal fitting and lower oval fitting.

What does the upper cruciform fitting make the junction between?. Center wing box top skin panels, outer wing box top skin panels, fuselage, and Rib 1. Center wing box top skin panels and bottom skin panels. Center wing box and outer wing box bottom skin panels. Outer wing box top skin panels and fuselage.

What part of the outer wing contains the top and bottom skin panels, ribs, and stringers?. Outer wing box. Wing tip. Leading edge and leading edge devices. Trailing edge and trailing edge devices.

How many top skin panels are there in the outer wing box?. 2. 3. 4. 5.

What do the wing spars extend from in the outer wing?. Rib 1 to Rib 27. The center wing box. The fuselage. Rib 22 to Rib 27.

How many load-carrying access panels are there in the outer wing box between Rib 14 and Rib 27?. Fourteen. Seven. Three. Twenty-one.

How are the non load-carrying access panels between Rib 1 and Rib 13 attached to the wing?. Clamped on the wing skin. Bolted through the skin panel. Welded to the fuselage. Riveted to the center wing box.

What parts of the wing require reinforcement when sharklets are installed?. Wing front spar, fixed leading edge structure, wing rear spars, fixed trailing edge structure, wing covers, wing ribs. Wing tip, wing root, winglets, winglet ribs. Center wing box, winglet attachment points, ailerons. Wing stringers, wing skin panels, trailing edge devices.

How is Rib 27 modified when sharklets are installed on the aircraft?. It becomes a box Rib instead of a traditional single-sided Rib. It is removed from the wing. It is strengthened with additional materials. It is shifted to a different location on the wing.

What is the composition of the D-nose assembly in the fixed leading edge?. Made of aluminum alloy parts. Made of Carbon Fiber Reinforced Plastic. Made of stainless stee. Made of honeycomb core.

Which component holds the pylon shroud panels?. D-nose assembly. Support ribs. Sub spar. Pylon ribs.

What is the composition of the D-nose assembly in the fixed leading edge?. Made of aluminum alloy parts. Made of Carbon Fiber Reinforced Plastic. Made of stainless steel. Made of honeycomb core.

Which component holds the pylon shroud panels?. D-nose assembly. Support ribs. Sub spar. Pylon ribs.

How many tracks support Slat 1?. 2. 4. 5. 3.

Which slats receive de-icing through the bleed air system?. Slats 1 and 2. Slats 3 to 5. Slats 1 to 3. Slats 4 and 5.

Where is the fixed trailing edge located?. Forward of the wing front spar. Aft of the wing rear spar. Between the wing box and LE spar. On the wing leading edge.

What are the trailing edge devices?. Two flaps, one aileron, five spoilers. Three flaps, two ailerons, four spoilers. Two flaps, two ailerons, six spoilers. One flap, one aileron, four spoilers.

How many flaps are installed on the TE of the outer wing?. 1. 2. 3. 4.

What is the function of the rubbing strip on the inboard flap?. To enhance aerodynamics. To provide additional support. To prevent corrosion. To protect the top skin from damage.

How many wing tracks support and drive the outboard flap in the A318-A319-A320?. 1. 2. 3. 4.

What is the unique feature of the A321 flaps compared to the A318-A319-A320?. They have a tab on the trailing edge. They are made entirely of aluminum alloy. They are larger in size. They have no leading edge.

How many spoilers are connected to the middle and outer sections of the rear spar?. 1. 2. 3. 4.

Which spoilers have a rubbing strip attached to their trailing edge?. Spoilers 1 & 2. Spoilers 3 & 4. Spoilers 4 & 5. All spoilers.

What is the primary material used for the top and bottom skins of the spoilers?. Aluminum alloy. Carbon Fiber Reinforced Plastic (CFRP). Stainless steel. Honeycomb core.

Where is the aileron located in relation to the outer flap?. Inboard. Outboard. Above. Below.

What material is primarily used for the aileron's skin?. Aluminum alloy. Carbon Fiber Reinforced Plastic (CFRP). Stainless steel. Honeycomb core.

What is the primary material used for the sides and trailing edge profile of the spoilers?. Aluminum alloy. Carbon Fiber Reinforced Plastic (CFRP). Stainless steel. Honeycomb core.

Which spoiler is connected to the false rear spar?. Spoiler 1. Spoiler 2. Spoiler 3. Spoiler 4.

How are the bottom surface access panels of the fixed leading edge attached?. With screws. With adhesive. With quick release fasteners. With bolts.

Which component of the A321 flaps is made of honeycomb core with a skin made of aluminum sheet metal?. Leading edge. Flap box. Trailing edge. Tab.

What is the primary function of the rubbing strip on the outer surface of the top skin of the flaps?. To enhance aerodynamics. To provide additional support. To prevent corrosion. To protect from damage.

The fixed Leading Edge (LE) assembly is located behind the front spar of the wing-box. True. False.

The bottom surface access panels are made of Carbon Fiber Reinforced Plastic (CFRP) and are attached with screws. True. False.

The wing leading edge is fitted with five slats. True. False.

The trailing edge devices consist of three flaps, one aileron, and six spoilers. True. False.

Two flaps are installed on the TE of the outer wing, and they are connected by an interconnection strut. True. False.

The inboard flap of A318-A319-A320 is supported by three tracks. True. False.

The outboard flap of A318-A319-A320 has a leading edge made of stainless steel. True. False.

The A321 flaps are fowler flaps without any tabs on the trailing edge. True. False.

There are six spoilers on the upper surface of the wing trailing edge. True. False.