Performance 1

According CS-Definitions, an "an area beyond the take-off runway (...) for use in decelerating the aeroplane during an abortive take-off" is defined as: Stopway. Clearway. Runaway ramp. Brake area.

Which of the following parameters decrease the take-off ground run? 1. decreasing take-off mass 2. increasing take-off mass 3. increasing density 4. decreasing density 5. increasing flap tilt angle 6. decreasing flap tilt angle 7. increasing pressure altitude 8. decreasing pressure altitude. 1, 3, 5 and 8. 2, 4, 6 and 8. 2, 3, 5 and 7. 1, 3, 5 and 7.

See attachment IC-032-011) Which sketch correctly illustrates the change in the thrust-required curve with increasing density altitude?. Sketch B. Sketch A. Sketch D. Sketch C.

When aircraft mass decreases during unaccelerated horizontal flight, the Minimum Drag [1] ___ and the IAS for the Minimum Drag [2] ___. [1] decreases [2] decreases. [1] increases [2] decreases. [1] decreases [2] increases. 1] increases [2] increases.

The "screen height" for Performance Class A aeroplanes is a reference height of usually (1) ___ with a dry runway, and is measures overhead (2) ___. (1) 35 ft, (2) Reference Zero (RZ). 1) 15 ft, (2) Airport Elevation. (1) 15 ft, (2) Reference Zero (RZ). (1) 35 ft, (2) Airport Elevation.

Define "Power Required. The power needed to maintain unaccelerated straight and level flight. The drag divided by airspeed to maintain unaccelerated straight and level flight. The power multiplied by airspeed to maintain unaccelerated straight and level flight. The thrust force needed to maintain unaccelerated straight and level flight.

With regard to CS-23 and CS-25, the "take-off flight path" (gross flight path) is: the actual flight path as demonstrated by the manufacturer excluding safety margins. the actual flight path as demonstrated by the manufacturer including safety margins. the actual flight path as demonstrated by the manufacturer reduced by a factor dependent on the number of engines. the minimum flight path with a gradient an airplane should follow to achieve a minimum obstacle clearance.

The correct equation about Specific Range over Ground (SRG) is... SR = GS / Total Fuel Flow. SR = TAS / Total Fuel Flow. SR = Mach number / Total Fuel Flow. SR = CAS / Total Fuel Flow.

The correct equation about Specific Air Range (SAR) is: SAR = TAS / Total Fuel Flow. SAR = GS / Total Fuel Flow. SAR = Mach number / Total Fuel Flow. SAR = CAS / Total Fuel Flow.

See attachment IC-032-010) Point (A) in a piston-engine aeroplane at any given mass is the Speed for Maximum. Endurance. Specific Range. Thrust. Lift.

The term "specific range" can be understood as... the distance (NM) an airplane can travel with given unit mass of fuel (kg). The distance (NM) an airplane multiplied with the average fuel flow (FF). the ground speed (GS) multiplied with the total fuel flow (FF). the ground speed (GS) divided by a given unit mass of fuel (kg).

To fly for maximum time airborne during glide, the speed should be for... minimum power required. critical Mach number. minimum angle of attack. maximum lift.

When flying at the 'backside of the power curve. the speed is unstable. the aeroplane is not able to stall. the altitude cannot be kept constant. the elevator must be pulled to lower the nose.

On the Power versus TAS graph for level flight, a tangent from the origin touches the power required curve where the... Lift to Drag ratio is a maximum. Drag coefficient is a minimum. Lift to Drag ratio is a minimum. Maximum Drag Speed is reached.

.. In straight horizontal steady flight, at speeds below that for minimum drag... lower speed requires higher thrust. higher speed, but still below that for minimum drag, requires higher thrust. the aeroplane cannot be flown manually. the aeroplane can only be controlled in level flight.

To achieve maximum range with a headwind, the airspeed should be... higher than the maximum range cruise speed with no wind. equal to the maximum range cruise speed with no wind. lower than the maximum range cruise speed with no wind. reduced to the maximum speed for gust penetration.

With the Centre of Gravity closer to the aft than the forward limit... The maximum range is increased. The stalling speed is increased. The longitudinal stability is improved. The maximum range is decreased.

Aircraft: Turbojet Speed Regime: Max. Range Cruise Cruise Level: Below Optimum If altitude is increased, the Specific Range will... first increase and then decrease. decrease. remain the same. increase only in still-air conditions.

Regarding a turbojet aeroplane, fuel flow during steady level flight is... proportional to thrust (drag) which directly depends on EAS. proportional to thrust (drag) which directly depends on TAS. proportional to power which directly depends on TAS. proportional to power which directly depends on EAS.

With regard to turbojet aeroplanes, which of the following statements is correct? 1. The speed for maximum endurance increases with increasing head wind component. 2. The (maximum) endurance is not affected by wind. 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct. 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect. 1 is correct, 2 is correct. 1 is correct, 2 is íncorrect.

With regard to turbojet aeroplanes, which of the following statements is correct? 1. Endurance increases with altitude up to the optimum altitude. 2. Endurance decreases with altitude above the optimum altitude. 1 is correct, 2 is correct. 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect. 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct. 1 is correct, 2 is íncorrect.

With regard to a propeller-driven aeroplane, the speed for maximum endurance (1) ___ with increasing altitude because (2) ___. (1) increases, (2) power required increases. (1) decreases, (2) power required decreases. (1) increases, (2) drag and thrust decrease. (1) decreases, (2) drag and thrust increase.

The correct statement about unaccelerated climb is.. The thrust is equal to the drag plus the downhill component of the gross weight in the flight path direction. The lift is higher than the gross weight. The lift is equal to the weight plus the vertical component of the drag. The thrust is equal to the drag plus the uphill component of the gross weight in the flight path direction.

With all other factors constant, an increase of altitude in a standard atmosphere, will cause [1] VX to ___ and [2] VY to ___ when expressed in TAS. [1] increase [2] increase. [1] decrease [2] increase. [1] decrease [2] decrease. 1] increase [2] decrease.

The best rate of climb at a constant gross mass... Decreases with increasing altitude as the thrust available decreases due to lower air density. Increases with increasing altitude as the drag decreases due to lower air density. Increases with increasing altitude due to higher TAS. Is not affected by changes in altitude.

With the information given, calculate the all-engine-operating (AEO) climb gradient for a twin-engine aeroplane (assume g = 10 m/s²): Thrust per engine: 120000 N Take-off Mass: 55000 kg Lift-to-drag ratio: 8:1. 31.1%. 18.1. 9.36%. 5.35%.

Operation Four-engine Turbojet Mass 150 000 kg Lift-to-Drag ratio 14 Thrust per engine 75 000 N (all operating) g 10 m/s² The Climb Gradient (%) is: 12.86. 1.286. 29. 7.94.

An aeroplane is in steady descending flight (descent angle 3°) with T = Thrust, D = Drag and W = Weight. The balance of forces acting on the aeroplane is: T + W sin 3° = D. T - W cos 3° = D. T - D = W cos 3°. T - D = W sin 3°.

An aeroplane is in a power-off glide at speed for minimum glide angle. If the pitch attitude is increased, the glide distance... decreases. increases. remains constant. increases or decreases depending on the type of aeroplane.

With regard to a Continuous Descent Approach (CDA) to an airport while keeping constant CAS, which of the following statements is correct? 1. An increase in headwind requires a reduction in Rate of Descent. 2. During a turn with sudden increase in headwind, thrust setting will momentarily be reduced. 1 is correct, 2 is correct. 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect. 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct. 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect.

The abbreviation for the Stalling Speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllable in landing configuration is... VSO. VS1. VR. VMMO.

(See attachment IC-032-016 or CAP 698 Figure 2.1) Using the attached graph for single-engine class B aeroplane, estimate the maximum value for the stall speed at a mass of 3200 lbs: 67 kt. 70 kt. 58 kt. 80 kt.

Taking off and landing a short dry grass instead of a paved runway, the take-off distance [1] ___ and the landing distance [2] ___. [1] increases [2] increases. [1] decreases [2] increases. [1] increases [2] decreases. [1] decreases [2] decreases.

According AMC1 CAT.POL.A.330, unless otherwise specified in the AFM, or other performance or operating manuals from the manufacturers, the variable affecting the landing performance and the associated factor that should be applied to the AFM data on a dry short-grass runway is: 1.15. 1.20. 1.25. 1.30.

According AMC1 CAT.POL.A.330, unless otherwise specified in the AFM, or other performance or operating manuals from the manufacturer, the landing distances required should be increased by (1) ___ for each (2) ___ of downslope. (1) 5%, (2) 1%. (1) 1%, (2) 5%. (1) 2%, (2) 1%. (1) 10%, (2) 5%.

(For this question, use attachment IC-032-018 or a suitable calculation method) Given the maximum allowed crosswind component of 25 kt for take-off on runway direction 220(M) and wind from 270(M), what is the maximum allowed reported wind speed to NOT exceed maximum crosswind component?. 32 kt. 33 kt. 38 kt. 19 kt.

When calculating the take-off field length required, not more than [1] ___ head wind are taken into account and not less than [2] ___ tailwind. [1] 50 % [2] 150 %. [1] 25 % [2] 175%. [1] 70% [2] 150%. [1] 50% [2] 175%.

If a graph is used to show compliance with the obstacle clearance requirement, the gradient from 50 ft to the assumed engine failure height is to be the average all-engine gradient multiplied by a factor of: 0.77. 1.30. 0.87. 1.15.

With regard to Class A Medium Range Jet Transport aircraft, any part of the net take-off flight path in which the aeroplane is banked by more than 15° shall clear all obstacles within the horizontal distances specified by a vertical distance of at least: 50 ft. 35 ft. 15 ft. 200 ft.

With regard to obstacle accountability area of performance class B multi-engine piston aeroplanes, the dimensions of the obstacle accountability area start with a semi-width at the end of TODA of 90 m. If the wing span is less than 60 m, then at least (1) ___ is the semi-width to be used. The area expands at a rate of (2) ___ x horizontal distance D travelled from the end of TODA. (1) 60 m + 1/2 wing span, (2) 0.125. (1) 60 m + wing span, (2) 0.125. (1) 90 m + 1/2 wing span, (2) 1.25. (1) 90 m + wing span, (2) 1.25.

For a single-engine aeroplane, calculate the expected obstacle clearance in VMC given the following values: Climb gradient: 6% TAS 120 kt Wind: Tailwind 10kt Obstacle height: 300 ft at a distance of 1.2 NM from DER (reference zero) Use 1 NM = 6080 ft, Height Difference = (GD x TAS)/GS x gradient / 100. 154 ft. 104 ft. 404 ft. 354 ft.

For a single-engine aeroplane, calculate the net glide distance with the following values given: Altitude: 11000 ft Terrain elevation: 1500 ft Gross gradient: 10% TAS: 250 kt Headwind: 40 kt Use 1 NM = 6080 ft Still air distance = (height difference / net gradient) x 100 Ground distance = Still Air Distance x (GS / TAS). 12.5 NM. 14.9 NM. 13.1 NM. 15.6 NM.

(See attachment IC-032-019) For a single-engine aeroplane, calculate the expected obstacle clearance overhead the lighted obstacle at extended centerline in VMC given the following values: Climb gradient: 12% TAS 145 kt Wind: Headwind 15 kt Take-off from Runway 11 with ELEV at MSL Use 1 NM = 6080 ft, Height Difference = (GD x TAS)/GS x gradient / 100. 315 ft. 165 ft. 65 ft. 115 ft.

(See attachment IC-032-019) For a single-engine aeroplane, calculate the expected obstacle clearance overhead the trees at extended centerline in VMC given the following values: Climb gradient: 8% TAS 180 kt Wind: Headwind 20kt Take-off from Runway 02 Use 1 NM = 6080 ft, Height Difference = (GD x TAS)/GS x gradient / 100. 370 ft. 320 ft. 220 ft. 770 ft.

See attachment IC-032-019) For a single-engine aeroplane, calculate the expected obstacle clearance overhead the trees at extended centerline in VMC given the following values: Climb gradient: 8% TAS 180 kt Wind: Headwind 20kt Take-off from Runway 02 Use 1 NM = 6080 ft, Height Difference = (GD x TAS)/GS x gradient / 100. 315 ft. 165 ft. 65 ft. 115 ft.

See attachment IC-032-019) For a single-engine aeroplane, calculate the expected obstacle clearance overhead the trees at extended centerline in VMC given the following values: Climb gradient: 8% TAS 180 kt Wind: Headwind 20kt Take-off from Runway 02 Use 1 NM = 6080 ft, Height Difference = (GD x TAS)/GS x gradient / 100. 370 ft. 320 ft. 220 ft. 770 ft.

The basis of the take-off runway performance requirements for transport category aeroplanes is. the failure of the critical engine or all engines operating whichever requirement gives the greater distance. all engines operating only. one engine inoperative only. the failure of the critical engine only.

Performance Class A Take-Off. V1 should not be exceeded by: VMCG. VREF. VMBE. VMU.

VR can not be lower than... V1 and 105 % of VMCA. 105 % of V1 and VMCA. VLOF. 1.2 VS for turbo-prop with three or more engines.

If max. tyre speed and max. brake energy speed are not limiting, the maximum value of V1 is: VR. VMCG. V2. VLOF.

V2 must exceed VMC by... 10 %. 15 %. 5 %. 25 %.

According AMC1 CAT.POL.A.205 ("LOSS OF RUNWAY LENGTH DUE TO ALIGNMENT"), the length of the runway that is declared for the calculation of take-off distance available (TODA), accelerate-stop distance available (ASDA) and take-off run available (TORA) does NOT account for line-up of the aeroplane in the direction of take-off on the runway in use. Accountability is usually required for a (1) ___ taxiway entry to the runway and (2) ___ turnaround on the runway. (1) 90°, (2) 180°. (1) 90°, (2) 90°. (1) 45°, (2) 180°. (1) 45°, (2) 90°.

When using Take-Off Flaps 20° instead of 10°. V2 decreases if not restricted by VMCA. the value of V2 does not change. V2 increases in proportion to the angle at which the flaps are set. V2 is not influenced by the T/O flap setting, as it is a function of runway length only.

With all other factors remaining constant and not limiting, the max. permissible Take-Off Mass... is increased by a downhill slope. is increased by an uphill slope. is not affected by the runway slope. is decreased by a downhill slope.

On a dry runway, the accelerate-stop distance is increased by... an uphill slope. a headwind. a low ambient air temperature. a lower take-off mass.

During certification test flights of a Turbojet, the measured take-off runs from brake release to a point equidistant between VLOF and 35 feet above the take-off surface, are: 1747 m with all engines operating 1950 m with critical engine failing at V1, all other factors the same The certificated take-off run is: 2009 m. 2263 m. 2196 m. 1759 m.

Runway length 3000 m Clearway length: 2000 m at each end of the runway The Max. Take-Off Distance Available is: 4500 m. 6500 m. 4000 m. 5000 m.

V1 for a balanced-field is used when... acceleration/stop distance available equals the take-off distance available. take-off mass is field-length limited by the stopway to obtain maximum take-off mass. take-off mass is field-length limited by the clearway to obtain maximum take-off mass. the speed is equal to VLOF.

Field length is balanced when: One engine inoperative take-off distance required is equal to one engine inoperative accelerate stop distance required. Computed V2 is less than 110 % VMCA and V1. All engine acceleration to V1 is equal to the braking distance for rejected take-off. One engine acceleration from V1 to VLOF is equal to the flare distance between VLOF and 35 feet.

If take-off mass is limited by the TODA, the correct statement is. The actual take-off mass is equal to the field length limited take-off mass. The distance from brake release to V1 equals the distance from V1 to the 50 ft point. The "balanced take-off distance" is equal to 130 % of the "all engine take-off distance". The end of the runway will be cleared by 35 ft following an engine failure after V1.

According ICAO Annex 15, Appendix 2, a SNOWTAM indicates which types of runway contaminations? 1. damp / wet 2. hail / showers / haze 3. frozen ruts or ridges 4. rime covered / ice 5. dry / wet snow 6. iced / powdered snow. 1, 3, 4 and 5. 2, 3, 5 and 6. 1, 2, 3 and 5. 1, 2, 4 and 6.

When comparing dynamic hydroplaning speeds for rotating and non-rotating tires, it can be stated that.. dynamic hydroplaning speed for non-rotating tires is lower than for rotating tires, due to wheel spin-up after touchdown. dynamic hydroplaning speed for non-rotating tires is higher than for rotating tires due to a higher friction coefficient. dynamic hydroplaning speed for non-rotating tires is the same as for rotating tires, since it depends only on mass. dynamic hydroplaning speed for non-rotating tires is the same as for rotating tires, since it depends only on tire pressure.

Which relationship is correct?. Climb limited TOM is independent of the wind component. Field-length-limited TOM is independent of the wind component. Accelerate-Stop Distance required is independent of the runway condition. Take-off distance with one engine out is independent of the wind component.

For a Performance Class A aircraft the Obstacle-Limited Take-off Mass... is determined by 35 ft obstacle clearance in relation to net take-off flight path. s permitted for turns of up to 30° bank angle in the take-off path. should ensure obstacle clearance of 50 ft in relation to net take-off flight path. should not be lower than climb limited take-off mass.

The net Take-Off Flight Path for a Class A aeroplane assumes... The critical engine of a multi-engined aeroplane failing at VEF. Any engine of a multi-engined aeroplane failing at VEF. Any engine of a multi-engined aeroplane failing at VLOF. Two engines of a three-engined or four-engined aeroplane failing at VEF.

A twin-engine aeroplane is about to initiate a turn during second segment of take-off climb. Given a required minimum net climb gradient of 1.8% in the turn, and expecting a decrease in climb gradient of 0.5% during the turn, the minimum gross climb gradient before initiating the turn must be at least: 3.1%. 2.9%. 2.3%. 3.9%.

Select the correct statement about the acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment. The maximum acceleration height depends on the maximum time take-off thrust may be applied. The minimum allowed acceleration height is at 1000 ft. No requirements exist for a minimum climb performance when flying at the acceleration height. The minimum one engine out acceleration height must kept constant in case of all engines operating.

The min. height at the end of the 2nd Climb Segment is... 400 ft above field elevation. 350 ft above ground. the height at which the landing gear is fully retracted. the height at which the flaps are fully retracted.

With regard to a runway contaminated with compacted snow, when compared to dry conditions, which of the following statements is correct? 1. Accelerate-Stop-Distance (ASD) increases. 2. Take-Off Distance (TOD) may. 1 is correct, 2 is correct. 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect. 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct. 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect.

With regard to take-off from a contaminated runway (wet, snow or slush), when compared to dry conditions, which of the following statements is correct? 1. In case of using a "wet V1", it is usually lower than a V1 for dry conditions. 2. Both Take-Off Distance (TOD) and Accelerate-Stop-Distance (ASD) increase. 1 is correct, 2 is correct. 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect. 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct. 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect.

What is the effect on the (1) one engine out obstacle clearance and on the (2) climb performance, when V1 has to be reduced because of wet runway conditions?. (1) decreases, (2) remains constant. (1) increases, (2) increases. (1) increases, (2) remains constant. (1) decreases, (2) decreases.

The benefits of using a "derated take-off" with Performance Class A aeroplanes on contaminated runways are. new Minimum Control Speeds (VMCG, VMCA) can be established, possibly allowing for better take-off performance. V1 may be reduced to allow for better deceleration performance and shorter Accelerate-Stop Distance. V1 may be increased to allow for better take-off performance and shorter Take-Off Distance. The risk of engine failure is reduced, and safety margins in take-off performance are increased.

With regard to different configurations for take-off, when compared to clean configuration, which of the following statements is correct? 1. Higher flap setting decreases Runway Length Limited Take-Off Mass. 2. Higher flap setting decreases Climb Limited Take-Off Mass. 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct. 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect. 1 is correct, 2 is correct. 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect.

With regard to different configurations for take-off, when compared to clean configuration, which of the following statements is correct? 1. Lower or no flap setting is recommended in case of obstacles at some distance from the runway to achieve a steeper climb gradient. 2. Higher flap setting decreases ground roll distance and increases Climb Limited Take-Off Mass. 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect. 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect. 1 is correct, 2 is correct. 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct.

See attachment IC-032-031) According the the values shown in the annex, the optimum flap/slat setting and maximum Performance Limited Take-Off Mass (PLTOM) in accordance with the requirements for commercial air transport is: 25°, 57700 kg. 5°, 56300 kg. 5°, 64000 kg. 25°, 63200 kg.

Max. Brake Release Mass values in Zero Wind of a CS-25 certified aeroplane are: Flap Setting 5° 15° 25° Runway Limitation (kg) 66000 69500 71500 2nd Segment Climb Limitation (kg) 72200 69000 61800 Wind correction: Headwind +120 kg / kt Tailwind - 360 kg / kt With 5 kt tailwind, the Max. Brake Release Mass and corresponding Flap Settings are: 67200 kg, 15°. 67700 kg, 15°. 72200 kg, 25°. 68200 kg, 25°.

With regard to Performance Class A Take-Off, compared to a conventional take-off, an improved climb take-off will result in... an increase in both V2 and Take-off Distance Required. a reduced flap setting to improve climb performance. a reduced V2 to get earlier lift-off, increasing obstacle clearance. a higher flap setting to increase climb performance.

With regard to "improved climb" procedure, which of the following statements is correct? 1. Increased V2 (improved climb) procedure may be used in case take-off mass is field-length limited. 1. Increased V2 (improved climb) procedure may be used in case take-off mass is NOT tyre-speed limited. 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct. 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect. 1 is correct, 2 is correct. 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect.

If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is tyre speed limited, a downhill slope will... not affect the maximum take-off mass. decrease the maximum take-off mass. increase the maximum take-off mass. increase the take-off distance required.

Higher Pressure Altitude in ISA conditions... decreases the field length limited take-off mass. decreases the take-off distance required. increases the climb limited take-off mass. does not affect take-off mass.

See attachment IC-032-030 or CAP698 Figure 4.20 Obstacle Limits) Medium-Range Jet Transport aircraft Take-Off with conditions: Temperature (OAT): +25°C, QNH 1013 hPa, NO wind. Airfield Pressure Altitude: 0 ft, TORA 8100 ft Obstacle height / distance from Brake Release Point: 250 ft / 18000 ft Limiting Masses: Structural Limit 61500 kg Field Length Limit 62500 kg Climb Limit 60500 kg Tyre Limit 70000 kg After change in wind, now 10 kt head wind, determine the Regulated Take-Off Mass for the changed runway: 59700 kg. 60500 kg. 59300 kg. 61500 kg.

Climbing at constant IAS and constant mass the drag... remains almost constant. increases significantely. decreases slightly. increases initially and then decreases.

In ISA conditions, a climb at constant Mach No. in the troposphere, will result in the TAS... Decreasing. Increasing. Remaining constant. Remaining independent of the Mach No.

With regard to climb with constant Mach number below the tropopause in ISA conditions, which of the following statements is correct? 1. EAS decreases. 2. CAS decreases. 3. TAS increases. 1 and 2. 1, 2 and 3. 2 and 3. 1 and 3.

With regard to climb with constant Mach number above the tropopause in ISA conditions, which of the following statements is correct? 1. When climbing with a higher Mach number at a given angle of climb, the rate of climb increases. 2. The EAS, CAS and TAS decrease with further climb. 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect. 1 is correct, 2 is correct. 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect. 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct.

The speeds of a jet aeroplane from low to high are... Vs, maximum angle of climb speed, maximum range speed. Vs, maximum range speed, maximum angle of climb speed. Vs, maximum endurance speed, maximum angle of climb speed. Vs, long range speed, maximum range speed.

In a Turbojet the optimum Long Range Cruise altitude... increases when the aeroplane mass decreases. No.

In a Turbojet the optimum Long Range Cruise altitude... increases when the aeroplane mass decreases. always equals the powerplant ceiling. decreases when the aeroplane mass decreases. depends only on the OAT.

The maximum operating altitude for an aeroplane with a pressurised cabin... Is the highest pressure altitude certified for normal operation. Depends on aerodynamic ceiling. Depends on the outside air temperature. Is certified for four-engine aeroplanes only.

With regard to step climb procedure, which of the following statements is correct? 1. A step-climb should be initiated when approximately 2000 ft below Optimum Altitude to increase range. 2. A step-climb should NOT be initiated when a stronger headwind component at higher altitudes over-compensated the higher fuel burn at lower altitude. 1 is correct, 2 is correct. 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect. 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct. 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect.

Drift-down Requirements after an engine failure in a multi-engine aircraft take into account... obstacle clearance in the descent to new cruise altitude. actual engine thrust at the engine failure altitude. max. flight path gradient in the descent. landing mass limit at the alternate.

An aeroplane descends from FL410 to FL270 at the cruise Mach Number and from FL270 to FL100 at the IAS achieved at FL270. With idle thrust, clean configuration and disregarding compressibility effects, the angle of descent in the first segment will (1) __ and in the second segment will (2) ___. (1) Increase (2) Remain constant. (1) Increase (2) Decrease. (1) Remain constant (2) Decrease. (1) Decrease (2) Increase.

The Landing Mass could be limited by the missed approach Climb Limits with... one engine inoperative in the approach configuration. one engine inoperative in the landing configuration. all engines operative in the approach configuration. all engines operative in the landing configuration.

According CS-25.121 (d), for certification, the one-engine inoperative gradient of climb during approach is demonstrated with: landing gear retracted. the actual landing weight. climb speed established with 1.4 VSR or more. remaining engine at Max Continious Thrust.

According AMC CS-25.125 (c) determining landing distance, the earliest point at which wheel brakes may be applied... with only the main wheels firmly on the ground, permitting the nose gear to touch down safely. with only the main wheels firmly on the ground, assuming the nose gear cannot be lower safely. upon initial ground touch of the main gear. after the nose gear has touched town.

On a Commercial Flight the Landing Distance Available for a Turbojet is 2400 m. The Landing Mass must allow for landing within... 1440 m. 1250 m. 900 m. 1955 m.

The correct statement regarding Turbojets is... when determining the maximum allowable landing mass at destination, 60 % of the available distance is taken into account, if the runway is expected to be dry. in any case runway slope is one of the factors taken into account when calculating the required landing field length. an anti-skid system malfunction does not effect the required landing field length. the required landing field length is the distance from 50 ft to the full stop point.

In a Turbojet the Wet Landing Distance is the Demonstrated Landing Distance plus... 92 %. 67 %. 78 %. 41 %.

If airworthiness documents do not specify a correction for landing on a wet runway, the landing distance be increased by.. 15 %. 12 %. 17 %. 20 %.

Aircraft Performance Class A Turboprop Runway Length at Destination 2200 m Runway condition Wet The landing distance required from the Aircraft Flight Manual (AFM) for a dry runway should be at maximum: 1339 m. 1247 m. 1540 m. 1775 m.

Level, dry, paved runway, Zero wind, Anti-skid operative. With all other factors constant, the field length limited Landing Mass will be increased by... a downhill slope. a headwind. wet conditions. inoperative anti-skid.