PTA CAP4: Rendimiento PARTE 1

Where is the critical altitude of a supercharged-reciprocating engine?. The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained.

What is controlled by the waste gate of a turbocharged-reciprocating engine?. Supercharger gear ratio. Exhaust gas discharge. Throttle opening.

Under normal operating conditions, which combination of MAP and RPM produce the most severe wear, fatigue, and damage to high performance reciprocating engines?. High RPM and low MAP. Low RPM and high MAP. High RPM and high MAP.

Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected to the highest temperature?. Compressor discharge. Fuel spray nozzles. Turbine inlet.

The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is. limiting compressor speed. limiting exhaust gas temperature. limiting torque.

What characterizes a transient compressor stall?. Loud, steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering. Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud whine. Intermittent 'bang,' as backfires and flow reversals take place.

What prevents turbine engines from developing compressor stalls?. Deice valves-fuel heat. TKS system. Compressor bleed valves.

What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady?. Strong vibrations and loud roar. Occasional loud 'bang' and flow reversal. Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed.

Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage?. Intermittent 'backfire' stall. Transient 'backfire' stall. Steady, continuous flow reversal stall.

Which part(s) in the turbojet engine is subjected to the high temperatures and severe centrifugal forces?. Turbine wheel(s). Turbine vanes. Compressor rotor(s) or impeller(s).

What recovery would be appropriate in the event of compressor stall?. Reduce the throttle and then rapidly advance the throttle to decrease the angle of attack on the compressor blades, creating more airflow. Reduce the throttle and then slowly advance the throttle again and decrease the aircraft's angle of attack. Advance the throttle slowly to increase airflow and decrease the angle of attack on one or more compressor blades.

Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine is a measure of. turbine inlet temperature. shaft horsepower and jet thrust. peller thrust only.

Minimum specific fuel consumption of the turboprop engine is normally available in which altitude range?. 10,000 feet to 25,000 feet. 25,000 feet to the tropopause. The tropopause to 45,000 feet.

What effect would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance?. As air density decreases, thrust increases. As temperature increases, thrust increases. As temperature increases, thrust decreases.

As outside air pressure decreases, thrust output will. increase due to greater efficiency of jet aircraft in thin air. remain the same since compression of inlet air will compensate for any decrease in air pressure. decrease due to higher density altitude.

What effect will an increase in altitude have upon the available equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine?. Lower air density and engine mass flow will cause a decrease in power. Higher propeller efficiency will cause an increase in usable power (ESHP) and thrust. Power will remain the same but propeller efficiency will decrease.

What effect, if any, does high ambient temperature have upon the thrust output of a turbine engine?. Thrust will be reduced due to the decrease in air density. Thrust will remain the same, but turbine temperature will be higher. Thrust will be higher because more heat energy is extracted from the hotter air.

What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines?. Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected. Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP. Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust.

. Which type rotor system is more susceptible to ground resonance?. Fully articulated rotor system. Semi-rigid rotor system. Rigid rotor system.

What type frequency vibration is associated with a defective transmission?. Low frequency only. Medium or low frequency. High or medium frequency.

What type frequency vibration is associated with the main rotor system?. Low frequency. Medium frequency. High frequency.

What type frequency vibration is indicative of a defective tail rotor system?. Low frequency. Medium frequency. High frequency.

What is the primary purpose of the free-wheeling unit?. To provide speed reduction between the engine, main rotor system, and tail rotor system. To provide disengagement of the engine from the rotor system for autorotation purposes. To transmit engine power to the main rotor, tail rotor, generator/alternator, and other accessories.

The main rotor blades of a fully articulated rotor system can. flap, drag, and feather collectively. flap, drag, and feather independently of each other. flap and drag individually, but can only feather collectively.

The main rotor blades of a semi-rigid system can. flap and feather as a unit. flap, drag, and feather independently. flap and drag individually, but can only feather collectively.

What is the name of an area beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft?. Clearway. Stopway. Obstruction clearance plane.

What is an area identified by the term 'stopway'?. An area, at least the same width as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. An area designated for use in decelerating an aborted takeoff. An area, not as wide as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff.

For which of these aircraft is the 'clearway' for a particular runway considered in computing takeoff weight limitations?. Those passenger-carrying transport aircraft certificated between August 26, 1957 and August 30, 1959. Turbine-engine-powered transport airplanes certificated after September 30, 1958. U.S. certified air carrier airplanes certificated after August 29, 1959.

. Which is a definition of V(2) speed?. Takeoff decision speed. Takeoff safety speed. Minimum takeoff speed.

What is the correct symbol for minimum unstick speed?. . V(MU). . V(MD). . V(FC).

The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is. . V(2). V(EF). V(1).

The minimum speed during takeoff, following a failure of the critical engine at V(EF), at which the pilot may continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance is indicated by symbol. V(2min). . V(1). V(LOF).

The symbol for the speed at which the critical engine is assumed to fail during takeoff is. V(2). V(1). V(EF).

Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases, for a given runway?. Critical engine failure speed. Rotation speed. Accelerate-stop distance.

Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed?. Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid. Low gross weight. High density altitude.

What effect does an uphill runway slope have upon takeoff performance?. Increases takeoff distance. Decreases takeoff speed. Decreases takeoff speed.

Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff?. Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation. Lower-than-standard air density. Increased headwind component.

(Refer to Figures 81, 82, and 83.) What is the takeoff safety speed for Operating Conditions G-1?. 122 knots. 137 knots. 139 knots.

. (Refer to Figures 81, 82, and 83.) What is the rotation speed for Operating Conditions G-2?. 150 knots. 154 knots. 155 knots.

(Refer to Figures 81, 82, and 83.) What are V(1), V(R), and V(2) speeds for Operating Conditions G-3?. 134, 134, and 145 knots. 134, 139, and 145 knots. 132, 132, and 145 knots.

. (Refer to Figures 81, 82, and 83.) What are V(1) and V(2) speeds for Operating Conditions G-4?. 133 and 145 knots. 127 and 141 knots. 132 and 146 knots.

(Refer to Figures 81, 82, and 83.) What are rotation and V(2) bug speeds for Operating Conditions G-5?. 120 and 134 knots. 119 and 135 knots. 135 and 135 knots.

(Refer to Figures 53, 54, and 55.) What is the takeoff safety speed for Operating Conditions R-1?. 128 knots. 121 knots. 133 knots.

(Refer to Figures 53, 54, and 55.) What is the rotation speed for Operating Conditions R-2?. 147 knots. 152 knots. 146 knots.

(Refer to Figures 53, 54, and 55.) What are V(1), V(R), and V(2) speeds for Operating Conditions R-3?. 143, 143, and 147 knots. 138, 138, and 142 knots. 136, 138, and 143 knots.

. (Refer to Figures 53, 54, and 55.) What are critical engine failure and takeoff safety speeds for Operating Conditions R-4?. 131 and 133 knots. 123 and 134 knots. 122 and 130 knots.

(Refer to Figures 53, 54, and 55.) What are rotation and V(2) bug speeds for Operating Conditions R-5?. 138 and 143 knots. 136 and 138 knots. 134 and 141 knots.

(Refer to Figures 45, 46, and 47.) What are V(1) and V(R) speeds for Operating Conditions A-1?. V(1) 123.1 knots; V(R) 125.2 knots. V(1) 120.5 knots; V(R) 123.5 knots. V(1) 122.3 knots; V(R) 124.1 knots.

(Refer to Figures 45, 46, and 47.) What are V(1) and V(R) speeds for Operating Conditions A-2?. V(1) 129.7 knots; V(R) 134.0 knots. V(1) 127.2 knots; V(R) 133.2 knots. V(1) 127.4 knots; V(R) 133.6 knots.

(Refer to Figures 45, 46, and 47.) What are V(1) and V(R) speeds for Operating Conditions A-3?. . V(1) 136.8 knots; V(R) 141.8 knots. . V(1) 134.8 knots; V(R) 139.0 knots. V(1) 133.5 knots; V(R) 141.0 knots.