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TEST BORRADO, QUIZÁS LE INTERESE: Radioactivity, Radiopharmacy, and Quality Assurance

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Título del Test: Radioactivity, Radiopharmacy, and Quality Assurance Descripción: tema 2 radiactividad Autor: Camaleon24 OTROS TESTS DEL AUTOR Fecha de Creación: 23/09/2024 Categoría: Animación Número Preguntas: 74

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1. 1) How does 201Tl decay? a. by positron emission b. by electron capture c. by beta emission d. none of the above. 2) What is the role of the stannous ion in the preparation of pharmaceuticals labeled with 99mTc? a. to increase the valence state from +4 to +7 b. to reduce the amount of Al3+ present c. to reduce the valence state of 99mTc d. to reduce the radiation dose. 3) If an assay of a vial containing 131I shows 50 mCi present on May 2, approximately what will the assay show on May 18? a. 25 mCi b. 12.5 mCi c. 40 mCi d. 6 mCi. 4) If a bone scan has been ordered on a 5-year-old girl, and the physician prescribes 62 % of the adult dose to be given, how many mCi should be administered? a. 21.7 mCi b. 12.4 mCi c. 7.4 mCi d. 3.1 mCi. 5) If the biological half-life of an isotope is 6 hours, and the physical half-life is 12 hrs, what is the effective half-life? a. 6 hrs b. 12 hrs c. 2 hrs d. 4 hrs. 6) Which of the following has been used to abbreviate physical half-life? a. Tp b. T/2 c. T2 d. P 1/2. 7) The physical half life of a radionuclide is the time it takes: a. for half of the substance to leave the body b. for the nuclide to decay to one half of the original activity c. for the kit to become half expired d. for half of the substance to be metabolized. 8) If a kit has 310 mCi of activity present at 8 : 00 a. m., what will the vial assay show in 4 hours and 10 minutes if the decay factor is 0.618? a. 175 mCi b. 192 mCi c. 501 mCi d. 155 mCi. 9) A vial containing 99mTc is assayed at 9 : 00 a. m. and contains 255 mCi. To calculate the remaining activity at 3 : 00 p. m., what decay factor would be used? a. .721 b. .595 c. .500 d. .600. 10) A vial of technetium eluate contains 50 mCi/ml. If 4 ml are withdrawn and added to a diphosphonate kit containing 16 ml of solution, what volume would then need to be withdrawn to prepare a 20 mCi dose at that moment? a. 1.0 b. 1.5 c. 2.0 d. 2.5. 11) If a preparation of 99mTc mertiatide has 60 mCi of activity present at 8 :30 a. m., how many mCi will be present at 9 : 00 a. m.? (l = 0.944) a. 63.6 b. 56.6 c. 59.6 d. 53.6. 12) Which of the following is boiled during preparation? a. MAA b. sulfur colloid c. albumin colloid d. diphosphonates. 13) The presence of 12 µg Al3+ in 1 ml of 99mTc eluate is: a. an example of radionuclidic impurity b. an example of chemical impurity c. an example of radiochemical impurity d. acceptable since it is less than 15 µg/ml. 14) Which body decides on the acceptable levels of radio- nuclidic impurity? a. USP b. NRC c. FDA d. both a and b. 15) Which of the following is an example of radionuclidic impurity? a. presence of free 99mTc in a preparation of 99mTc sulfur colloid b. presence of 99Mo in 99mTc eluate c. presence of aluminum ions in 99mTc eluate d. presence of pyrogens in eluate. 16) What is the maximum amount of aluminum ions (Al3+ ) allowed in one milliliter of 99mTc eluate according to the USP? a. none is allowed b. 5 µg c. 10 µg d. 15 µg. 17) What is indicated by the front of an ITLC strip? a. radionuclidic impurity b. particles of incorrect size c. pyrogens d. this depends on the solvent and strip used. 18) If a kit contains 140 mCi of 99mTc in 23 ml, how much volume must be withdrawn to obtain a dose of 5 mCi? a. 0.8 ml b. 30 ml c. 1.2 ml d. 0.6 ml. 19) If a kit contains 140 mCi of 99mTc in 23 ml at 9 : 00 a. m., how much volume must be withdrawn to obtain a dose of 5 mCi at 3 : 00 p. m.? a. 0.8 ml b. 1.6 ml c. 2.4 ml d. 0.6. 20) A MAA kit contains 40 mCi of 99mTc in 5 ml at 8 : 00 a. m. What would be the best volume to be withdraw at 10 : 00 a. m. if a perfusion lung scan is planned? (l = 0.794) a. 0.63 ml b. 1.54 ml c. 2.2 ml d. 0.25 ml. 21) What is the most likely size of an MAA particle if correctly prepared? a. 0 – 100 mm b. 10 – 30 µm c. 10 – 30 mm d. 0 – 250 µm. 22) 99mTc MAA has a biologic half-life of 2 – 4 hours; what will the effective half-life be? a. 1.5 – 3.0 hours b. 2.0 – 4.0 hours c. 0.5 – 1.0 hours d. 1.5 – 2.4 hours. 23) Which radiopharmaceutical is made with 99mTc without a reducing agent? a. MAG3 b. MAA c. sulfur colloid d. sestamibi. 24) Which of the following is an example of radiochemical impurity? a. presence of free 99mTc in a preparation of 99mTc sulfur colloid b. presence of 99Mo in 99mTc eluate c. presence of aluminum ions in 99mTc eluate d. presence of pyrogens in eluate. 25) Which of the following can be said regarding effective half-life? a. it is always longer than the physical half-life b. it always shorter than both the physical and the biologic half-life c. it is always shorter than physical half-life, but longer than the biologic half-life d. it is always longer than the biologic half-life, but shorter than the physical half-life. 26) The purpose of adding EDTA to sulfur colloid when labeling with 99mTc is: a. to prevent aggregation of sulfur colloid b. to bind excess Al3+ c. to prevent loss of the radiolabel d. a and b only e. b and c only. 27) A diphosphonate kit should generally be used within how many hours after preparation? a. 2 hours b. 4 hours c. 6 hours d. 24 hours. 28) What is the usual particle size of sulfur colloid? a. 0.3 – 1.0 µm b. 0.03 – 0.1 µm c. 2.0 – 10 µm d. 4.0 – 15 µm. 29) Which radiopharmaceutical, when correctly prepared, will have the smallest particle size? a. 99mTc sulfur colloid b. 99mTc albumin colloid c. 99mTc human serum albumin d. 99mTc macroaggregated albumin. 30) The advantages of albumin colloid over sulfur colloid include: a. does not require boiling b. less expensive c. smaller dose can be administered d. all of the above. 31) Following injection of 99mTc MAA for a perfusion lung scan, activity is seen in the kidneys and brain. This is indicative of: a. right to left cardiac shunt b. renal failure c. congestive heart failure d. incorrect particle size. 32) At 7 : 00 a. m., a technologist prepares a dose of 99mTc MDP for injection at 10 : 00 a. m. that day. The desired dose is 22 mCi and no precalibration factors are available. The three hour decay factor for the isotope is 0.707. What amount of activity should the technologist draw up into the syringe at 7 : 00 a. m.? a. 15.6 mCi b. 27.07 mCi c. 29.5 mCi d. 31.1 mCi. 33) What can be said regarding precalibration factors? a. it is not necessary for problem solving if the decay factor is available b. it is always < 1.0 c. it is always > 1.0 d. both a and c. 34) What method is used to calculate pediatric dose? a. according to weight b. Clark’s formula c. according to body surface area d. using Talbot’s nomogram e. all of the above. 35) If the recommended volume for a MAG3 kit ranges from 4 – 10 ml, and the 99mTc eluate that will be used contains 820 mCi in 10 ml, and 41 mCi will be used, what is the minimum amount of diluent that should be added? a. 0.5 ml b. 1 ml c. 3.5 ml d. 9.5 ml. 36) If a 20 mCi dose of 99mTc HDP are needed at 9 : 00 a. m., how much activity should the syringe contain if the technologist prepares it at 7 : 00 a. m.? You may use the table of precalibration factors (Table 2.1 a) to determine the answer. Table 2.1 a. Precalibration factors for 99mTechnetium (assuming T1/2 = 6.0 hours) 0:00 00:15 00:30 00:45 1 : 0 1.122 1.156 1.189 1.224 2 : 0 1.259 1.297 1.335 1.374 3 : 0 1.414 1.456 1.499 1.543 4 : 0 1.587 1.634 1.681 1.730 a. 15.9 mCi b. 21.26 mCi c. 25.18 mCi d. 26.7 mCi. 37) Using Table 2.1 b, determine the decay factor for 99mTc at 7 hours. Table 2.1 b. Decay factors for 99mTechnetium (assuming T1/2 = 6.0 hours) 0:00 00:15 00:30 00:45 1.0 0.891 0.866 0.841 0.817 2.0 0.794 0.771 0.749 0.728 3.0 0.707 0.687 0.667 0.648 4.0 0.630 0.612 0.595 0.578 a. 1.337 b. 0.445 c. 0.432 d. 0.551. 38) On a Monday morning at 6 : 00 a. m., a technologist is preparing a 99mTc ECD kit that is to be used for the SPECT brain scans at 8 : 00 a. m., 9 : 00 a. m. and 10 : 00 a. m. Each patient should receive 10 mCi. What is the minimum activity that should be added to the kit during preparation? Use Table 2.1 a if necessary. a. 42.6 mCi b. 30.0 mCi c. 44.5 mCi d. 52.0 mCi. 39) A chromatography strip is used to test a kit for radio- chemical impurity and is counted in a well counter. Part A contains 99mTc pertechnetate, and Part B contains bound 99mTc in the desired form. If the results show 258,000 cpm in Part B, and 55,000 cpm in Part A, can this kit be used for injection into patients? a. yes b. no. 40) What is the approximate labeling efficiency for the kit described in question 39? a. 21 % b. 79 % c. 18 % d. 82 %. 41) What is the approximate radiochemical impurity of the kit described in question 39? a. 21 % b. 79 % c. 18 % d. 82 %. 42) A vial of 99mTc eluate is tested for 99Mo breakthrough, and the amount of breakthrough is 25 uCi in 775 mCi at 6 : 00 a. m. Following the preparation of all kits to be used that day, 450 mCi of 99mTc is left. That night, a technologist is asked to perform a scrotal scan at 11 : 00 p.m. Must the generator be eluted again? a. yes, because the amount of eluate will have decayed to below the amount needed for a patient dose b. yes, because the molybdenum breakthrough will now exceed the limit allowed by the NRC c. no. 43) A 99mTc MDP bone scan dose was prepared at 7 : 00 a. m. and contained 32 mCi/2 ml. At 9 : 00 a. m., when the patient arrives, the technologist realizes that the patient’s age was overlooked (13 years). The technologist would now like to adjust the dose to 11 mCi. Given a 2 hour decay factor of 0.794, what volume should be discarded so that the correct dose remains in the syringe? a. 0.65 ml b. 0.87 ml c. 1.13 ml d. 1.5 ml. 44) A dose of 99mTc DMSA is prepared and calibrated to contain 5.0 mCi at 8 : 00 a. m. The patient arrives late at 10 : 00 a. m. Without using any tables of decay factors, determine what activity will remain in the dose at that time. a. 3.40 mCi b. 3.54 mCi c. 3.62 mCi d. 3.97 mCi. 45) A MAA kit contains 950,000 particles per ml. The activity in the kit is 50 mCi of 99mTc in 5 ml. If a 4 mCi dose is drawn up, how many particles will be in the dose? a. 76,000 b. 380,000 c. 410,000 d. 450,000. 46) What will happen to the dose in question 47 if it sits for one hour? a. the number of particles per mCi will increase b. the number of particles per mCi will decrease c. the number of particles per mCi will remain unchanged. 47) A volume of 5 ml containing 40 mCi of 99mTc is added to an MAA kit with an average of 3,000,000 particles. What volume of the reconstituted kit should be with- drawn to prepare a dose for a patient with severe pulmonary hypertension? a. 0.25 ml b. 0.40 ml c. 0.45 ml d. 0.50 ml. 48) Which of the following is not a desirable characteristic of radionuclides used for imaging? a. photon energy between 50 and 500 keV b. effective half-life long enough to permit imaging c. particulate emission d. low toxicity. 49) To reduce the possibility of pyrogenic reactions, all kits should be prepared using saline that contains bacteriostatic preservatives. a. true b. false. 50) While performing a GI bleeding study with labeled red blood cells, a technologist notices gastric activity that he suspects is the result of free pertechnetate. What could be done to support this suspicion? a. reimage the patient in the erect position b. narrow the window around the photopeak c. image the thyroid d. have the patient drink 2 glasses of water and empty his or her bladder. 51) Convert 23 mCi to SI units. a. 850 MBq b. 850 kBq c. 850 GBq d. none of the above. 52) If excessive aluminum is present in 99mTc eluate, which of the following would be expected on a bone scan? a. lung uptake b. liver uptake c. thyroid uptake d. gastric uptake. 53) Radiochemical impurities often result from: a. introduction of water into the kit b. introduction of oxygen into the kit c. introduction of nitrogen into the kit d. a and b only e. all of the above. 54) It is proper technique to clean the septum of a kit reaction vial, and inject an amount of air equal to the volume being withdrawn when preparing a unit dose. a. true b. false. 55) 15 rem is equal to: a. 150 mSv b. 15 Gy c. 15 Sv d. 150 MBq. 56) What is the purpose of adding hetastarch to a blood sample drawn for the purpose of leukocyte labeling? a. to act as an anticoagulant b. to hasten the settling of erythrocytes c. to separate platelets from leukocytes d. to improve labeling efficiency. 57) Following reconstitution of a kit with 99mTc pertech- netate, a technologist should ensure that all of the following are present on the vial except: a. date and time of preparation b. lot number c. concentration and volume d. patient name or identification number. 58) What is the difference between preparation of a 99mTc HMPAO kit for use in leukocyte labeling as compared to brain imaging? a. methylene blue stabilizer is not added b. the kit is boiled after addition of pertechnetate c. an anticoagulant must be added d. labeling efficiency is much more critical. 59) Testing for pyrogens is achieved by: a. radiochromatography b. limulus amebocyte lysate assay c. ITLC d. none of the above. 60) If the proper centrifuge speed is not used during separation of cell types for leukocyte labeling with 111In oxine, what may happen? a. platelets may be inadvertently labeled b. 111In oxine will not tag WBCs c. red blood cells may become damaged d. white blood cells may become damaged. 61) In reconstituted radiopharmaceutical kits, in what form is 99m Tc present? a. free pertechnetate b. bound technetium c. reduced, hydrolyzed technetium d. all of the above. 62) For determination of plasma volume, 10 µCi of human serum albumin in 2.5 ml is added to 500 ml of water. What is the concentration of the resulting solution? a. 0.019 µCi/ml b. 0.020 µCi/ml c. 50.00 µCi/ml d. 50.20 µCi/ml. 63) A 99Mo/99mTc generator exists in ___________ equilibrium and the parent isotope has a _______________ physical half life than the daughter isotope. a. transient, longer b. transient, shorter c. static, longer d. static, shorter. 64) If 630 mCi of 99mTc is eluted from a 99Mo/99mTc generator, what is the NRC limit of total 99Mo activity that may be present? a. 0.15 µCi b. 94.5 µCi c. 42 mCi d. 94.5 µCi/ml e. 42 µCi. 65) Which of the following radionuclides is not a positron emitter? a. 82Rb b. 15O c. 18F d. 14C e. 68Ga. 66) When a neutron deficient nucleus emits a positron: a. atomic mass number decreases by 1 b. atomic mass number increases by 1 c. atomic number increases by 1 d. atomic mass number is unchanged. 67) Which of the following has the shortest half life? a. 82Rb b. 13N c. 15O d. 18F. 68) When 18FDG is transported across most cell membranes: a. it diffuses back out of the cell in about 3 hours. b. it is trapped in the cell c. it is not further metabolized d. b and c e. a and c. 69) Which of the following will not affect the distribution of 18FDG on a PET image? a. intense physical activity the day before imaging b. serum insulin level c. serum glucose level d. bladder catheterization e. all of the above affect distribution. 70) Normal FDG distribution would show the least activity in the: a. brain b. bone c. bladder d. myocardium. 71) All positron emitting isotopes are produced in a cyclotron. a. True b. False. 72) 18FDG-PET is not an important tool for: a. restaging of colorectal cancer b. monitoring response to treatment of non-Hodgkins lymphoma c. detecting Helicobacter pylori d. imaging metastases in breast cancer. 73) Which of the following is true regarding 18FDG? a. its distribution in the brain is related only to blood flow b. it is a potassium analog c. it has a half life of 60 minutes d. it is taken up by a disease free myocardium. 74) 18FDG-PET images show a map of the ________ distribution in the body. a. oxygen b. insulin c. glucose d. potassium.

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