TEST BORRADO, QUIZÁS LE INTERESE: REP E6 B777
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REP E6 B777 Descripción: LAB TOP Autor:
Fecha de Creación: 02/09/2024 Categoría: Ciencia Número Preguntas: 84 |
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(ATA 57) What access available for internal wing structure inspection? Throug fuel tank and wing access doors at the top of the wings Through fuel tank access doors only at the bottom of the wings Through fuel tank and wing access doors at the bottom of the wings. (ATA 55) how many panels are you allowed to removed from horizontal stabilizer at the same time? all panels may be removed as they are not supported structure No more than 2 adjacent panels Any 2 panels on the same area. (ATA 56) When does, WINDOW FLT DECK L(R) advisory message come on? When alert switch closes When proximity sensor show FAR signal When proximity sensor shows NEAR signal. (ATA 56) What type of coating is applied to the number 1 flight compartment windows? Ultra- violet prevention coating Light sensitive auto shade coating Rain protection Hydrophobic coating. (ATA 54) Before doing any maintenance on the strut, what must you do? Deactivate the engine starting system Remove electrical power from the aircraft Deactivate the thrust reverser system. (ATA 53) What element does not give structural support to the fuselage? Nose Radome Floor beams Keal Beam. In the event of a rapid decompression of the flight deck, what happens? A pressure sensor controls an electric actuator that disengages the flight deck door hinges and allows the door to open inwards. Apressure sensor controls the electric strike and allows the flight deck door to open inwards. Blowout panels will open inwards to equalise the pressure in the flight deck. What does the fligh lock mechanism do? Prevents the opening of the passenger doors when the airspeed is more than 80 knots. Prevents anyone opening the flight deck door from outside when the airspeed is more than 80kts Prevents the opening of the opening of the passenger doors when the aircraft is. (ATA 52) The EPAS battery pack squib test light is showing a continous amber colour. what does this indicate? The passenger entry door handle is in Closed position The safety switch is in arm position There is airplane power to the battery pack. (ATA 52) How do you engage the hold open latch of the forwards equipment access door? Turn the handle Push the latch button Push in the handle . (ATA 52) What is used to control the rate at which the door opens or closes? Snubber Spring Bungee. (ATA 52) What allows the emergency door assist system (EPAS) to open the passenger door in an emergency? Door hold open mechanism Snnuber piston Programming mechanism chain. (ATA 52) What prevents you from opening the lower cargo door when there is too much pressure inside the aircraft? Vent door mechanism Lock handle mechanism Pressure differential switch. (ATA 52) What type of Switches are used by the emergency power assist system (EPAS)? Mechanical switches Magnetic switches Proximity Switches. (ATA 52) When removing the bulk cargo door, which of the following safety precaution is required? The door must be fully opened before removal eliminating any pressure inthe counterbalance mechanism The spring cartridge must be full depleted of nitrogen A safety pin is fitted in the counterbalance mechanism. (ATA 52) During manual cargo operation which of the following protects the shaft and motors against over torque? The inbuilt safety clutch A mechanical shear pin There is no safety device fitted. (ATA 52) What is the purpose of the Linear Lift piston? To assist the power door opening in an amergency To connect the battery pack to the exit signs when the door is armed To assist the door in an upward movement when opening. (ATA 52) What is the purpose of the programme chain inthe entry door? To keep the door parallel to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft when opening To allow for the git bart to be disarmed when opening the door from the outside To signal EICAS that the door is not fully closed. (ATA 52) What is the purpose of the programme mechanism? Correctly align door when it opens and closes Allow for the door to open fully when the lift raft has deplyed Disconnect the escape rafts when the aircraft sinks in the water. (ATA 52) What is the purpose of the Safety switch on the Door Battery Pack? To prevent inadvertent operation of the emergency escape slide on opening door To prevent external openning of the door with the door armed from inside To prevent EPAS (emergency Power Assist System) operation during door maintenance. (ATA 51) Aregion of ultra fine cracks, which may extend in a network on or under the surface or resin or plastic material is know as? Crazing Crease Delamination. (ATA 51) How is "Allowable Damage" defined? As damage that is permitted with no other flight restictions Is defined as damage that must be repaired Is defined as damage that must be reworked. (ATA 49) Which access is required for the APU controller (APUC) replacement? Electronic compartment access door open up Aft cargo door or bulk cargo door open up Cabin ceiling hinged access panel above aft galley. (ATA 49) What is used in the APU lubrication system to increase starting reliability when the APU has been cold soaked? APU oil pressure regulating/relief valve. APU oil heater system. APU fuel-oil heat exhanger. (ATA 49) When does the Air Turbine Starter Control Valve (ATSCV) close during a pneumatic APU start? At 50% APU engine RPM At 49% APU engine RPM At 55% APU engine RPM. (ATA 49) When will the fuel cluster mounted APU Fuel Shutoff Solenoid Valve open? When APU Start is selected When the APU door is open When APU speed is above 7% during the start sequence. (ATA 49) Which of the following statements is correct? For APU starting the APU controller will always? Use the air turbine starter if air pressure is available Use the APU electric starter motor if the APU battery is in good condition Use either the air turbine starter or electric starter depending on the position of the crank contactor. (ATA 49) Which IGV pneumatic mode position takes priority? Idle Main Engine Start Air Driven Pump. (ATA 49) Which of the following statements is correct? The surge control valve protects the APU from surging depending upon? The APU speed and IGV outlet pressure Inlet pressure and bleed demand only Inlet pressure, Inlet temperature and total pressure of air across the load compressor. (ATA 49) Which of the following statements is correct? Prior to an APU start: You must ensure the APU inlet door is open You must ensure there is sufficient fuel in the left main fuel tank AC power must be available on the Captain’s XFR bus. (ATA 49) Why is an APU shut down from the P40 panel a non normal shut down? There is no cool down period of the APU The APU fire bottle is automatically discharged The RAT can extend if power is lost on the XFR Busses. (ATA 49) When will the APU do an auto start? If the APU speed is below 7% and the start switch is in the on position Aircraft is in flight and either engine flame out occurs Aircraft is in flight and power is lost from both XFR busses. (ATA 49) What system is checked out on every APU shut down? APU underspeed APU overspeed Engine speed sensor failure. (ATA 49) Where can the APU oil pressure be monitored? On the MFD status page only On the MFD APU maintenance page only On both pages mentioned above in a. & b. (ATA 49) APU Infet door is controlled by: APUC ELMS OPAS. (ATA 49) Which starter is used in fight to start the APU when engine bleed is not available? None Pneumatic starter Electric starter. (ATA 49) If the APU is in cooldown mode (EICAS message APU COOLDOWN is shown), can you cancel the cooldown and accelerate the APU back to 100%? Yes. you can cancel the APU cooldown at any time Yes. within 105 sec. after APU START switch set to OFF No. The APU shutdown cycle has already started. (ATA 26) RR RB211 TRENT 800. Flight deck fire warnings maybe initiated by? IP turbine Ovht thermocouples T30 thermocouples LP turbine Ovht thermocouples. (ATA 26) When will Overheat detection occur? when the element delects 80% of an overheat condition As soon as a pre determined value occurs After 9.6 seconds delay to prevent error signals. (ATA 26) Which of the following statements is correct? Engine fire detection elements are: A resistance type element Gaseous filled tubes with pressure switches Both of the above. (ATA 26) How is Nacelle temperature indication calculated? By measuring the average temperature of the fire elements By measuring spikes of temperature of the fire elements By measuring individual loops and adding loops together. (ATA 26) What will generate a status message ‘Fire loop’? A single fire detector element fault A double fire detector element fault An ACIPS card power failure. (ATA 26) Which of the following statements is correct? The Turbine Overheat detection system: Is a single thermocouple measuring air temperature at the IPT vane front face Is monitored by the EEC sending an overheat signal to the Fire Detection Cards for Fire warning generation Is a pair of thermocouples monitoring air temperature at the HPT vane front and aft face. (ATA 26) How long can a squib be in service? For 5 years after the date stamped on the squib unit for 20 years from the date of manufacture For 10 years after the date stamped on the squib unit. (ATA 26) How can the Fire bottle pressure switch circuitry be checked? Bite function check from the MAT only Pushing the test switch on the fire bottle weighing the bottle. (ATA 26) How can you check engine bottle discharge indication? Engine bottle discharge light comes on only Advisory and status message show only Engine bottle discharge light comes on and advisory and status messages show . (ATA 26) What will happen if you pull and rotate fire switch on cold airplane (no ground power and battery off? Fire extinguisher bottle will discharge Nothing. Fire switch can't be puled due to locking solenoid Nothing, due to no power . (ATA 26) What statement is true for APU unattended mode? No automatic shut down in case just one fire detection The fire extinguishing system operates automatically The fire detection loop 1 and loop 2 must have a fire . (ATA 26) Which of the following statements is correct? Engine fire detection elements are: Inconnel filled tubes with thermistor core material Gaseous filled tubes with pressure switches Both of the above. (ATA 26) If one channel of the lower cargo smoke detector fails, what will occur? A maintenance message is generated A fault message is generated, and automatic change over occurs A Fault light appears on the P5 fire detection panel. (ATA 26) What component acts as the interface between the OPAS system and the Lower Cargo smoke detectors? The ASG cards The DLODS cards The ELMS units. (ATA 26) What will do cargo smoke detector fans during cargo handling? Increase air flow through detectors Stop operation Decrease air flow through detectors. (ATA 26) Which component receives information from the Cargo smoke airflow pressure and temperature logic? Both ECSMC’s Directly from the Aux Static and Pitot probes The left ECSMC. (ATA 26) Which of the following statements is correct? In flight, the metered fire bottles discharge: Immediately after the dump bottle have discharged When the fire agent push switch is pushed a second time 20 minutes after the dump bottles have discharged. (ATA 26) GE 90. What is the access to the strut overheat detectors? Through the forward strut fairing Through two panels on the bottom of the fixed leading edge Through the pressure relief door in the right side of the strut . (ATA 26) What fuselage areas do budy duct leak detectors monitor? APU compartment, fuselage from aft pressure bulkhead to APU firewall Air Driven Pumps area and main wheel wells Main wheel wells and RAT compartment. (ATA 26) An automatic test of all the fire extinguishing squibs is done by: The maintenance access terminal (MAT) The fire and overheat test switch (FIRE/OVHT TEST) The electrical load management system (ELMS). (ATA 26) Which of the following conditions energises the fire handle solenoid when a fire has NOT been detected? In flight with the battery ON and the fuel control lever is in the cut off position Both Engines shut down and the APU is runing On the ground, Anti ice selected and EPR > 1.66. (ATA 26) The wheel well and duct overheat fire detector elements send there signals directly to which of the following card files? AFOLTS cards AGS cards DLODS cards. (ATA 26) Which of the following statements is correct? DLODS signals interface with airframe components through the: ACIPS cards. ELMS units AIMS units. (ATA 26) If the detector reads low resistance what will occur? A fire warning is generaled A dual loop fault is signalled to EICAS The detection cards will disregard the signal to fire wire grounding. (ATA 26) If only ONE loop detects a fire what will occur in the card files? A fire STBY is initiated powering the fire switch solenoid The squibs are energised to the arming position A 15 second timer is initiated awaiting a second fault loop signal. (ATA 26) What solenoid is energised on fire detecting? The squib firing solenoid The WEU inhibit relay is energized Fire switch unlock solenoid. (ATA 25) What do you have to use to stop unwanted vertical movement of captain s in case of power adjustment failure? Emergency stop switch only Manual override lever or emergency stop switch Manual override lever only. (ATA 25) What you have to do if overhead stowage bin can't be opened with bezel? Remove stowage bin cover from upper hinges with quick-release guides Push with special tool on the emergency release levers Disconnect both upper snubbers to release latching torque tube. (ATA 25) Access to the overhead flight crew rest area near door 1 is achieved via: A hatch and ladder. A vestibule module. An elevator module. (ATA 25) What type of cooling system does the air chiller use? Cooling fan, Air cycle machine. Vapour cycle cooling unit. (ATA 25) The lower lobe cargo compartments have a Class C fire protection. Which of the following is a feature of that system? Compartment linings meet specific burn through requirements, Fire extinguishing is achieved by depressurization of the aircraft. The compartments are made air tight. (ATA 25) What is the function of the decompression panels in the cargo compartment? Prevent damage to the passenger compartment floor. Prevents damage to the aircraft skin. Prevents damage to the cargo compartment floor. (ATA 25) Which of the following cargo handling system components can operate in electromechanical or manual mode? Power Drive Units, Rollout Stop/Locks and Lateral Guides center Stop/Locks, Center Rollout Stop/Locks and Lateral Guides Rollout Stop/Locks, Lateral Guides and Ball Transfer Units. (ATA 25) What is a purpose of lateral guides? Give vertical restraint and more anchor fittings for pallets only Keep containers stay straight and give vertical restraint Keep containers stay straight on the forward ball panels. (ATA 25) The lift cams move the PDU up the first time the motor is in the drive condition. What will bring it down? Manual press down Electrical DOWN signal from CSC Power drive unit (PDU) power off. (ATA 25) How can you troubleshoot of cargo handling system? Operation of the system to see if it operates correctly BITE on the Cargo System Controller (CSC) System test from Maintenance Access Terminal (MAT). (ATA 25) Complete the right statement about the ropes and stowage bags: Number two windows and stowage bags should not be attached and closed Number two windows and stowage bags should be attached and closed Number three windows and doors should be locked. (ATA 25) The emergency evacuation signal can be operated from: The flight deck only by emergency evacuation switch on PB panel The attendant stations only by evacuation command switch The attendant stations and flight deck related switches. (ATA 25) How are Nuisance chimes disabled? On the MAT On the zone control panels On the CSCP. (ATA 25) Which of the following statements is correct? PA volume is the same as Interphone volume Full boarding music volume Chime volume. (ATA 25) Where can Inbound FDE's faults be observed? CMC ground tests CSCP cabin fault review Only on the MAT. (ATA 25) Where are the SDM's located? Above the ceiling On the E4 racks In the CMC panel. (ATA 25) What does the prefix MU relate to? Zone multiplex units Zone management units Zero maintenance. (ATA 25) After performing any fault fixing action what must be performed? A configuration upload A quick test and check to see if the fault code has been removed A status readout check and configuration check to record the part number. (ATA 25) What is required before CSCP screen cleaning can be performed? Lock out the panel Disable the power Down power the aircraft. (ATA 25) If 2 adjacent speaker drive modules have failed what will happen? The Interphone will be degraded All chimes will be inop A Comms Status message will be generated. (ATA 25) How is operational software updating achieved? From the MAT From the data loading module From the Cabin Configuration page on the CMC. |
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