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TEST BORRADO, QUIZÁS LE INTERESE: TECNICO AVIONICA

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Título del Test: TECNICO AVIONICA Descripción: Examen ava Autor: JUAN FELIPE OTROS TESTS DEL AUTOR Fecha de Creación: 20/08/2024 Categoría: Otros Número Preguntas: 490

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What are some potential risks associated with electrical current according to the safety practices Skin irritation and dizziness Serious flesh burns and muscle contractions Hair loss and joint pain Vision impairment and respiratory issues . What is electrical current defined as in a closed electrical circuit? The flow of negative charges from negative to positive The flow of positive charges from positive to negative The flow of negative charges from positive to negative The flow of positive charges from negative to positive . Which of the following are the four circuit elements found in every electrical circuit? Current, Energy, Capacitance, Frequency Voltage, Resistance, Power, Inductance Current, Voltage, Resistance, Power Amperage, Conductance, Impedance, Wattage. According to the Law of Electrical Charges, which of the following statements is true? Two positive charges will attract each other Two negative charges will attract each other. A positive charge will repel a negative charge. A negative charge will repel a positive charge. What is the force that causes current to flow in an electrical circuit? Voltage Resistance Power Electromotive Force. Which type of current is produced by most sources and flows in only one direction through the circuit Alternating current (AC) Pulsating current (PC) Direct current (DC) Oscillating current (OC). What is the purpose of a rectifier circuit in electrical equipment? To increase resistance in the circuit To convert AC voltage to DC voltage To decrease the flow of current To generate alternating current . What is the unit of measurement for resistance in an electrical circuit? Ampere (A) Volt (V) Ohm (Ω Watt (W). Which of the following is a common type of fixed resistor used in electrical circuits? Variable resistor Rheostat Carbon composition resistor Potentiometer. What is the unit of measurement for electrical power? Watt Ohm Ampere Volt . Why is it important to consider the wattage rating of electrical components in circuit design? To determine the physical size of the component To ensure proper heat dissipation and prevent damage To regulate the voltage levels in the circuit To control the resistance of the component. What is the purpose of a multimeter in electrical measurements? To measure only resistance in a circuit To measure only voltage in a circuit To combine the functions of a voltmeter, ohmmeter, and ammeter To generate electrical signals for testing purposes. What precaution should be taken to ensure accurate ammeter readings and prevent electrical shocks? Exceeding the capabilities of the meter Setting the range selector switch to the lowest range Disconnecting the circuit from the power source before measuring current Keeping the circuit connected to the power source during measurements . According to Ohm's Law, if the voltage applied to a circuit is increased, how is the current affected? Current increases Current decreases Current remains the same Current becomes zero. In a circuit with 120V and 1,200 ohms of resistance, how much current will flow (in milliamps)? 10 mA 100 mA 1 mA 1,000 mA. What is the purpose of an attenuator in a circuit? To increase voltage To decrease current To decrease signal strength To increase resistance. Define resistance and explain the unit of measurement for resistance. Resistance limits current flow; measured in volts Resistance opposes current flow; measured in ohms Resistance controls voltage; measured in watts Resistance regulates power; measured in amperes . What is the difference between a fixed resistor and a variable resistor? Fixed resistors have changing values; variable resistors have constant values Fixed resistors have constant values; variable resistors have changing values Fixed resistors are used in series circuits; variable resistors are used in parallel circuits Fixed resistors are used in parallel circuits; variable resistors are used in series circuits. What is the purpose of a diode rectifier in an electrical circuit? To amplify signals To regulate voltage To convert AC to DC To store electrical energy. How is a potentiometer different from a rheostat? Potentiometers have fixed resistance values Rheostats have three terminals Potentiometers control voltage Rheostats control current. How should operators protect ESD sensitive devices before opening a protective container? Wear gloves Ground the operator's body Use a metal tool Increase humidity levels. Why is it important to check tools used in electrical installations regularly? To increase the weight of the tools To ensure tools are functioning correctly To change the color of the tools To reduce the number of tools used . What components can be part of Line Replaceable Units (LRUs) in aircraft systems? Engines and landing gear Computers, sensors, and actuators Passenger seats and overhead bins In-flight entertainment systems. Why are LRUs in aircraft systems continuously monitored? To control the cabin temperature For entertainment purposes For safety reasons and troubleshooting To adjust the aircraft's altitude. What is the purpose of Built-In Test Equipment (BITE) in aircraft systems? What is the purpose of Built-In Test Equipment (BITE) in aircraft systems? To monitor the weather conditions To conduct diagnostic tests and troubleshoot issues To play music for passengers. How can you determine the wire type and gauge for a connector in the ESPM? Refer to the Aircraft Maintenance Manual Check the Electrical Standard Practices Manual index Consult the Aircraft Wiring Manual (AWM) Contact Airbus customer service. What is the main purpose of the MIL-STD-202H standard? To create new electronic components for military use. To establish uniform methods for testing electronic and electrical components. To define the production process for military equipment. To provide guidelines for military training exercises. . Which components are covered by the MIL-STD-202H standard? Large machinery and vehicles. Small component parts like capacitors, resistors, and switches Software and firmware used in military applications. Communication protocols for military networks. What is the weight limit for components tested under MIL-STD-202H? 100 pounds 200 pounds 300 pounds 400 pounds. What is the maximum root mean square (RMS) test voltage specified in MIL-STD-202H? 10,000 volts 20,000 volts 30,000 volts 50,000 volts. MIL-STD-202H test methods apply to which parts besides those covered by military specifications? Only parts that have been previously tested. Parts covered by commercial specifications. Parts not covered by any approved specification or standard. Parts that exceed 300 pounds in weight. . What is the purpose of the ESD control program standard ANSI/ESD S20.20-2021 ? To design new electronic components. To provide administrative and technical requirements for an ESD control program. To train employees on ESD safety To replace outdated testing methods. . When should the sanitation procedure for the espresso maker be conducted? Before the Final Inspection Procedure. At any random time during production. At the beginning of the Final Inspection Procedure At the end of the Final Inspection Procedure. How many Long Coffee functions should be performed for each water outlet during sanitation? Three for the single version and one for the double version. Two for the single version and three for the double version Five for the single version and one for the double version. One for the single version and two for the double version. What is the purpose of the OCM LOADER SOFTWARE V5 ? To cook food in the oven To communicate with an oven and exchange data between the oven and a personal computer. To repair the oven. To control the temperature of the oven. What is one function of the OCM LOADER SOFTWARE V5 ? Playing music Downloading recipes Uploading new settings and software to the unit. Sending emails. What types of data can be exchanged using the OCM LOADER SOFTWARE V5? Audio files. Videos Data and logs. Text messages. What is the primary difference between the 2-Inch Spring-lift PDU and the 43212 Self-lift PDU? The material used for construction The color of the housing. The mechanism for lifting cargo. The size of the electrical cable. Which components of the 2-Inch Spring-lift PDU are shared with the 43212 Self-lift PDU? Spring-loaded plungers and retractable mounting pins. Aluminum drive rollers and electrical module Anodized aluminum housing and electrical cable. Gear train components and traction rollers. What is the purpose of the elastomeric-coated, aluminum drive rollers in the 2-Inch Spring-lift PDU? To lift the PDU To engage with Unit Load Devices (ULDs) and move them within the cargo bay. To retract mounting pins To control the functions of the PDU. What type of electric motor powers the 2-Inch Spring-lift PDU? 115/200 VAC, single-phase, 60 Hz 220 VAC, three-phase, 50 Hz. 115/200 VAC, three-phase, 400 Hz 240 VDC, single-phase. Which component controls the functions of the 2-Inch Spring-lift PDU? Anodized aluminum housing. Electrical module Spring-loaded plungers. Retractable mounting pins. What connects the 2-Inch Spring-lift PDU to the power and control systems? Electrical module Gear train Electrical cable and plug. Anodized aluminum housing. How does the spring-lift mechanism of the PDU function? By direct engagement with the cargo bay floor By applying constant pressure on the cargo containers By reacting with roller trays and utilizing a spring pack and actuator. By employing an electromagnetic field. What is the benefit of the spring-lift PDU's constant contact with the container bottom? Decreased system performance and efficiency. Increased drift of containers Improved system performance and efficiency, along with inherent braking capacity. Enhanced container movement control during power loss. What does the power-off brake design of the PDU allow it to do? Allows the PDU to move freely without any control. Prevents the PDU from stopping containers Retains total control of a container above it under normal operation. Increases the likelihood of runaway conditions during power loss. What is the purpose of the power-off brake design in the spring-lift PDU? To increase the movement of freerolling containers. To avoid potential runaway conditions during power loss. To reduce the efficiency of the PDU To decrease the braking capacity of the PDU. How does the spring-lift PDU differ from most self-lift PDU systems? By lacking inherent braking capacity. By allowing containers to drift. By having rollers always in contact with the container bottom. By using a single-stage gear train. What data is sent from the PDU to the control system through the CAN Bus? Drive commands Maintenance history Operational control data All of the above. How does the microprocessor enhance the inherent protection from crossed phase switching? By increasing the voltage By implementing a redundant minimum reversal delay. By shutting down the PDU By increasing the communication speed. How does the microprocessor handle ULD detection? By shutting down the PDU after 0.15 seconds By adjusting for ambient lighting automatically By sending error messages to the control system. By increasing the communication speed. What action does the microprocessor take if communication with the control system is lost? It shuts down the PDU It increases the reversal delay. It implements multiple error correction schemes. It automatically retransmits lost or garbled data packets. What is the purpose of the screw thread at the top of the temperature sensor? To measure temperature To connect to the aircraft circuits To permit installation in the related system duct. To change the internal potting. . How is the temperature measured by the assembly sensor of the temperature sensor? By direct voltage measurement. By changes in resistance. By changes in current. By changes in capacitance. What is the first step in the cleaning procedure for the temperature sensor? Clean the temperature sensor with denaturized ethyl alcohol. Install the protective cap on the electrical receptacle connector. Dry the temperature sensor with a clean dry low-pressure air jet Finish the cleaning with a brass brush. . What type of cloth should be used for cleaning the temperature sensor? Lint-free cloth. Microfiber cloth Paper towel Cotton cloth. What does the outer casing of the Mixed Flow Fan contain? A control panel A receptacle connector An exhaust vent A cooling system. What type of motor is used in the motor assembly Mixed Flow Fan Single-phase induction motor Stepper moto Three-phase squirrel cage type fourpole induction motor Direct current motor. How many helical type blades are in the fan wheel of Mixed Flow Fan Eight Ten Twelve Fourteen. What is the function of the thermo switches in the motor assembly of Mixed Flow Fan? Increase the motor speed Adjust the airflow Disconnect the power supply if the stator reaches +140°C (+284°F) Monitor the fan wheel rotation. Where is the fan wheel mounted in the Mixed Flow Fan ? At the end of the guide housing At the end of the rotor shaft nside the outer casing On the bearing casing. What does the bearing casing RH contain in the Mixed Flow Fan ? A temperature sensor A preloaded ball bearing An inlet basket A cooling fan. What type of fittings are on the outlet diffuser of the Mixed Flow Fan Threaded fittings Quick-release fittings Flanged fittings Slip-on fittings. Where is the identification plate located of the Mixed Flow Fan ? On the inlet basket assembly On the motor assembly On the outer casing On the outlet diffuser. What information does the identification plate of the Mixed Flow Fan provide? Motor speed Wiring diagram Modification status Temperature rating. What is indicated by the direction plates of the Mixed Flow Fan Motor voltage Fan wheel rotation and airflow direction Bearing type Temperature limits. In what mode can the Mixed Flow Fan operate continuously? Manual mode Maintenance mode Continuous operation mode Standby mode. What is the function of the quick release clamps of the Mixed Flow Fan? Secure the bearings Mount the outer casing Connect the electrical wiring Adjust the fan speed. What is the function of the screw ring in the bearing casing LH of the Mixed Flow Fan ? Adjust the fan speed Secure the bearing in place Connect the motor assembly Indicate the temperature. What is the main function of the Extraction Fan? Cooling the engine Extracting air from the toilet and galley compartments Filtering air in the cabin Heating the passenger area. What component in the Extraction Fan houses the receptacle connector and bonding clamp? Fan wheel Outer casing Motor housing Inlet basket assy. Which component of the Extraction Fan is equipped with flanged fittings for air pipes? Fan casing Outlet diffuser Inlet basket assy Bearing cover. What type of motor is used in the Extraction Fan? Single-phase induction motor Stepper motor Three-phase squirrel cage type four pole induction motor Direct current motor. What component supports the ball bearings in the Extraction Fan motor assembly? Rotor shaft assy Stator Bearing covers Fan wheel. How many helical type blades does the fan wheel of the Extraction Fan contain? Eight Ten Twelve Fourteen. What component in the Extraction Fan is responsible for switching off the power supply at +160°C (+320°F)? Rotor shaft Bearing covers Thermo switches Fan wheel . What secures the preloaded ball bearing in the bearing cover of the Extraction Fan? Set screw Spring washer Locking pin Snap ring. What type of ball bearings are used in the Extraction Fan motor assembly? Air-lubricated ball bearings Oil-lubricated roller bearings Grease packed ball bearings Magnetic levitation bearings. Which component of the Extraction Fan includes the wire winding and three thermo switches? Rotor shaft assy Stator in the motor housing Fan wheel Bearing cover. What component of the Extraction Fan indicates the direction of rotation and flow direction of the air? Identification plate on the inlet basket Outer casing Bearing cover Thermo switches. In which component of the Extraction Fan are the helical type blades of the motor housing divided? One stage Two stages Three stages Four stages. What component of the Extraction Fan is fitted for mounting quick release clamps? Inlet basket assy Outlet diffuser Fan casing Outer casing. Which component of the Extraction Fan is used to evaluate aerodynamic performance? Test stand Bearing cover Rotor shaft assy Thermo switches. 0 Where is the fan wheel mounted in the Extraction Fan? At the end of the motor casing the front end of rotor shaft as Inside the outer casing On the bearing cover. What is the primary function of the avionics fan EVT3454? To generate electricity To cool electric and electronic equipment To provide lighting To control airflow. Which type of motor does the avionics fan EVT3454 use? Single-phase Three-phase Direct current Alternating current. What is the purpose of the warning light on the equipped plate of the avionics fan EVT3454? To indicate when the fan is running To alert about temperature increase To signal low battery To detect humidity levels . What components are included in the avionics fan EVT3454? Electrical motor, impeller, straightener, intake, casing Power supply, screws, casing, impeller Circuit board, buttons, casing, intake Electrical motor, impeller, straightener, intake, casing . What role does the straightener play in the fan avionics fan EVT3454?? To rotate the impeller To control temperature To ensure axial airflow To generate electricity. What is the function of the bellmouthed intake? To amplify sound To direct airflow To provide structural support To measure air pressure. How does the thermal switch contribute to safety of the avionics fan EVT3454?? It controls the motor speed It prevents overheating It adjusts airflow direction It measures air quality. What action should be taken if the thermal switch activates of the avionics fan EVT3454? Restart the fan immediately Switch off the warning light Switch on the push button before restarting Increase the fan speed. What direction does the airflow take when the fan is operational of the avionics fan EVT3454? Radial Axial Random Circumferential. What is the primary power source for the avionics fan EVT3454? Battery Solar power Three-phase electrical supply Wind power. What triggers the thermal switch to close of the avionics fan EVT3454? Increase in voltage Decrease in voltage Increase in temperature Decrease in temperature. What is the consequence of the thermal switch closing of the avionics fan EVT3454? The fan slows down The fan stops working The warning light turns off The warning light turns on. How does the fan respond to a closed thermal switch? It continues running at the same speed It increases speed to cool more rapidly It slows down to reduce heat production It stops automatically. What is the significance of the bellmouthed intake in the avionics fan EVT3454? It increases airflow efficiency It reduces noise level It provides structural reinforcement It enhances aesthetic appeal. What is the role of the electrical connector on the equipped plate? To transmit data To connect to a power source To control fan speed To trigger emergency shutdown. What is the nominal voltage of the battery 40678-2? 24 V 28 V 43 Ah 20 V. How many cells does battery 40678-2 contain? 10 15 20 25. What material are the battery 40678-2 cases made of? Stainless steel Polyamide Nickel-plated copper Silicone elastomer. What is the electrolyte used in battery 40678-2? KOH H2SO4 NaCl HCl . At what temperature can battery 40678-2 operate? -40 to +71 °C -20 to +50 °C 0 to +100 °C -10 to +60 °C. How much electrolyte is consumed per cell in battery 40678-2? 25 cm3 (3 in3) 30 cm3 (4 in3) 20 cm3 (2 in3) 15 cm3 (1 in3). What is the rated capacity of battery 40678-2 at 1-hour rate? 43 A 24 V 43 Ah 20 V. How many cells need to be tested in the polarization test for battery 40678-2? All 5 10 None. At what pressure should the vent valve of battery 40678-2 operate? 0.5 bar (7.25 psi) 1 bar (14.5 psi) 2 bar (29 psi) 0.1 bar (1.45 psi). When should the electrolyte level in battery 40678-2 be adjusted? During the last 30 minutes of charge During maintenance During discharge During polarization test. What should be done if a cell in battery 40678-2 has a voltage less than 1.5 V at the end of the charge? Discard the cell Recharge the cell Check the connections Adjust the temperature. What could cause zero battery open-circuit voltage in battery 40678- 2? Defective electrical connector Low insulation Leakage of electrolyte Fully discharged battery. What should be done if battery 40678-2 has low insulation? Do an insulation check Charge the battery again Clean the battery Tighten the nuts. How long should battery 40678-2 be kept in "open-circuit" condition during the polarization test? 1 hour 2 hours 0.5 hour 3 hours. What is the weight of battery 40678-2? 38.6 kg (85.1 lbs) 30 kg (66.1 lbs) 40 kg (88.2 lbs) 35 kg (77.2 lbs). What action should be taken if the gap between the latch lever and the base of the battery box cover latch assembly exceeds 0.025" (0.635 mm)? Leave it as is Increase the gap Lightly squeeze the latch lever Replace the latch assembly. What is the nominal voltage of the SAFT Battery 1658-6? 12 V 24 V 28 V 36 V. How many vented nickel-cadmium cells does the battery contain? 10 15 20 20 . For which of the following purposes is the SAFT Battery 1658-6 NOT used? Starting the engine Powering cabin lights Starting the APU Backup power during flight malfunctions . What is the rated capacity of the battery 1658-6 ? 10 Ah 17 Ah 20 Ah 24 Ah . What material are the battery cases made of? Polypropylene Polyamide Polyethylene Polystyrene. What type of electrolyte is used in the SAFT Battery 1658-6? Sulfuric acid Hydrochloric acid KOH solution NaOH solution. What is the maximum weight of the battery? 15.5 kg 18.5 kg 20.5 kg 22.5 kg. What should be done if the open circuit voltage of a cell is found to be 0 V during the polarization test? Replace the battery Replace the cell Perform a supplementary test Recharge immediately. During the vent valve test, what is the pressure range within which the vent valve should open? 0.14 to 0.5 bar 0.1 to 0.14 bar 0.14 to 0.7 bar 0.1 to 0.5 bar. What should be added to a cell with an unusually high voltage at the start of the charge? 5 cm³ of distilled water 10 cm³ of distilled water 5 cm³ of electrolyte 10 cm³ of electrolyte. At what temperature should a cell with a voltage of less than 1.5 V be charged to identify damaged separators? 20 °C 25 °C 30 °C 35 °C. f a cell has zero voltage when the battery circuit is open, what is the probable cause? Low electrolyte level Short-circuited cell Overcharging Incorrect maintenance. What is the procedure if a cell shows a reversed voltage after a discharge of 1 hour at 1 C1A? Increase charging current Replace the cell Decrease charging current Adjust electrolyte level. What is the consequence of charging a cell with insufficient electrolyte? Increased temperature Reduced voltage Increased capacity Short-circuiting. What should be done if the electrolyte compound comes into contact with the skin? Wipe it off immediately Neutralize with acetic solution Cover with a bandage Apply antiseptic cream. What unit is used to describe the capacity of a cell or battery? Volt Ampere Hours Watt Ohm. How is "Capacity to battery " generally expressed? In Joules In Amperes As a percentage of nominal capacity In Kilowatt Hours. What does constant current charging involve? Applying a fixed voltage Applying a fixed current Applying a variable voltage Applying a variable current . In constant potential charging, what happens to the charge current as the battery voltage increases? It remains constant It increases It decreases It fluctuates randomly. What is the purpose of a trickle charge? To fully charge a battery quickly To maintain a battery in a fully charged condition To discharge a battery completely To charge a battery intermittently. What is meant by the "C" rate of a battery? The charging rate in volts The rate of charge in percentage The discharge rate in nominal amperes The rate of current in amperes. ow is the state of charge usually expressed? In voltage In amperes As a percentage of full capacity In watts. What is the electrolyte in a nickel-cadmium battery? Sulfuric acid solution Hydrochloric acid solution Sodium Hydroxide solution Potassium Hydroxide solution. What does the end-of-charge voltage measure? Voltage at the start of the charge Voltage while the battery is on charge Voltage after the battery is disconnected Voltage during discharge. What term describes the loss of capacity due to minimal overcharge cycling? Fading Corrosion Electrolyte depletion Separator damage. What is the function of a separator in a battery? To store energy To conduct electricity To prevent metallic contact between plates To recombine oxygen. What is a gas barrier in a battery? A separator that prevents oxygen recombination on the negative plate A conductor for ion movement A device to release excess gas A charger component. What is the nominal voltage of a fully charged 20-cell nickel-cadmium battery? 12 volts 20 volts 24 volts 28 volts. How is the open circuit voltage of a battery measured? While the battery is charging While the battery is discharging With no current flowing During deep discharge. What procedure involves a deep discharge followed by a constant current charge to correct cell imbalance? Trickle charging Reconditioning Constant potential charging Short-circuiting. What is the nominal capacity of the M3 X-23-1 battery? 22 AH 23 AH 24 AH 25 AH. What type of battery is the M3 X-23-1? Lead-Acid Nickel-Iron Nickel-Cadmium Lithium-Ion. What should you remove before working with the batteries to avoid injury? Shoes Metal articles like bracelets and rings Protective clothing Eye protection. What type of clothing should be worn while handling the batteries? Casual clothes Protective clothing Formal attire None . Why should metal tools be insulated when working with the batteries? To prevent electrical shorts To increase efficiency To reduce weight For aesthetic reasons. What kind of gas mixture do the batteries emit during charging? Carbon dioxide and methane Nitrogen and oxygen Hydrogen and oxygen Argon and helium. What should you not do near charging batteries to avoid explosion risks? Wear protective clothing Use insulated tools Smoke or hold naked flames Remove metal articles. Where should the batteries not be charged to avoid gas accumulation? In a confined space Outdoors In a large room Near a window. Can lead-acid and nickel-cadmium battery servicing be mixed in the same shop area? Yes, it is safe No, it should be avoided Only under supervision Only if using the same tools. Which substances should not be used with these batteries? Water Alcohol Petroleum spirits and trichloroethylene Vinegar. What should you do before proceeding with servicing procedures? Charge the battery Understand the cautions and warnings Mix lead-acid and nickel-cadmium batteries Remove the battery cover. What kind of energy release can result from carelessness? Mechanical Electrical, chemical or heat Gravitational Kinetic. What is the purpose of this manual? To provide shop verified instructions for installation, operation, and maintenance To sell batteries To advertise battery features To describe battery history. What can cause burns if in contact with skin or eyes? Battery casing Electrolyte Battery terminals Battery insulation. What must be done before beginning the discharge of the battery (P/N 2758)? Remove the vent-valves Tighten the vent-valves Check the electrolyte level Remove all jewelry. What can cause severe burns during battery maintenance (P/N 2758)? Tilting the battery Tightening vent-valves Using insulated tools Wearing protective shoes. What should you do if the electrolyte comes into contact with the skin (P/N 2758)? Call a doctor immediately Neutralize with a base solution Flush affected part with water and neutralize Induce vomiting. How should the battery area be prepared before installing a Saft nickel-cadmium battery (P/N 2758)? Painted with an acid resistant paint Cleaned with water only Washed with a neutralizing agent and painted Cleaned with a degreaser. What should be done if the battery (P/N 2758) has been stored for longer than 3 months Install directly into the aircraft Perform a charge procedure Refer to Servicing after discharged storage Disassemble and reassemble. How is the rated capacity of aircraft batteries (P/N 2758) defined? According to specific local conditions Based on the manufacturer's recommendation According to international standards Based on the type of aircraft. What is the procedure if electrolyte comes in contact with the eyes (P/N 2758)? Flush with water for at least 5 minutes Neutralize with baking soda Flush with water for at least 15 minutes Call a doctor only if pain persists. What should you do if electrolyte is ingested (P/N 2758)? Neutralize with a base solution Flush affected part with water and neutralize Induce vomiting Call a doctor immediately. Which tool type should be used when handling the battery (P/N 2758)? Insulated tools Regular tools Battery-specific tools Non-metallic tools. What should be checked before placing a new battery (P/N 2758) into service? Electrolyte level only Visual inspection and torque check Only the charge procedure Only the insulation test. What is Saft's recommendation for the disposal of end of life cells (P/N 2758)? Return to manufacturer Follow EASA regulations Follow FAA guidelines Follow local and national regulations. What does Saft emphasize regarding environmental matters (P/N 2758)? Battery maintenance Proper recycling of nickel-cadmium batteries Battery installation Use of protective equipmen. What is the maximum operating temperature for the battery (P/N 2758 +37°C +55°C +60°C +98°F. What is the first step in the constant current charge procedure for the battery (P/N 2758) Check cell voltage Remove vent cap covers Connect battery to current source Start charging immediately. What must be done if a cell voltage rises above 1.5 V immediately during charging of battery (P/N 2758)? Continue charging Remove the battery Stop the charge Replace the cell. What should be done during the cleaning of a disassembled battery (P/N 2758)? Use petroleum spirits Use a stiff brush and fresh water Use solvents containing chlorine Skip the cleaning. When cleaning the battery (P/N 2758), what should you avoid using? Sodium bicarbonate solution Sulfamic acid solution Trichloroethylene Baking soda solution. According to the text, what is a risk associated with nickel in the battery (P/N 2758)? Chronic eczema Chest pain Vomiting Throat damage. What should be done to cells (P/N 2758) before disposing of them? Washed thoroughly Fully discharged Recharged Painted with acid resistant paint. Which regulation requires that end of life cells (P/N 2758) must not be returned to service? FAA regulations Local regulations EASA 'Part 145' regulations Saft company policy. What specification was this manual compiled in accordance with (P/N 400-2437-01, -02)? ATA iSpec 2200 ATA iSpec 2100 FAA 145 Regulations EASA Part M. What does the manual provide information about (P/N 400-2437-01, - 02)? Engine maintenance Mounting Rail Assembly maintenance Cabin lighting systems Fuel system operation. What is included in the Illustrated Parts List section of the manual (P/N 400-2437-01, -02)? Storage instructions Troubleshooting procedures Detailed information to requisition, store, and issue replaceable parts Warranty information. How is aircraft power routed to the coffee brewer through the Mounting Rail Assembly (P/N 400-2437-01, -02)? Directly connected Through the slotted connector Via wireless connection Using a battery. What is required for the Mounting Rail Assembly's drain to be operational (P/N 400-2437-01, -02)? Connection to a usable aircraft galley drain Installation of a water filter No special requirements Use of a specific detergent. Which coffee brewers are compatible with the Mounting Rail Assembly (P/N 400-2437-01, -02)? Any type of coffee brewer Aircoffee® PX 1604 Series and Atlas brewers Only Aircoffee® PX 1604 Series Only Atlas coffee brewers. What is the input voltage for the coffee brewer connected to the Mounting Rail Assembly (P/N 400-2437-01, -02)? 230 VAC, 50 Hz 115 VAC, 400 Hz 115 VAC, 60 Hz 230 VAC, 400 Hz. What should be done if freezing temperatures are expected and the coffee brewer will not be in use (P/N 400-2437-01, -02)? Leave water in the system Drain the coffee brewer water system Cover the coffee brewer Add antifreeze to the water system. How should the Mounting Rail Assembly be stored for short duration (P/N 400-2437-01, -02) No special protection required Enclose silica gel packages Wrap in water repellant material Store in original shipping container. What material should be used to wrap the unit for extended duration storage (P/N 400-2437-01, -02)? Federal Spec. VV-P-271 or equivalent Plastic wrap Aluminum foil Bubble wrap. How can the coffee brewer be installed and removed from the Mounting Rail Assembly (P/N 400-2437-01, -02)? Using bolts Engaging/disengaging the locking pin Welding Screwing/unscrewing. What precaution must be taken before storing the Mounting Rail Assembly (P/N 400-2437-01, -02) to prevent damage? Ensure all liquids are drained Cover with plastic Apply a protective coating Disconnect the power supply. What does the Mounting Rail Assembly provide for the coffee brewer (P/N 400-2437-01, -02)? Cooling and heating Mounting, electrical, and water connections Only mounting Only electrical connections. How often will this manual be updated (P/N 400-2437-01, -02)? Annually As required by revisions Every 6 months Every 2 years. Where should the units ideally be stored (P/N 400-2437-01, -02)? In a dry place In a humid place In the shipping containers provided by the manufacturer In an open space. What phase input voltage is supplied to the coffee brewer through the Mounting Rail Assembly (P/N 400-2437-01, -02)? Single-phase Two-phase Three-phase Four-phase. What function does the socket assembly serve in the rail assembly (P/N 3520-0610-01 to 3520-0610-03)? Acts as a filter for the water inlet line Operates as a check valve for the water inlet line Provides an electrical connection Serves as a pressure regulator. What should the resistance be when checking each wire and connector for continuity in the electrical test (P/N 3520-0610-01 to 3520-0610-03)? Less than one Ohm Less than five Ohms Less than ten Ohms Less than two Ohms. What is the pressure range for the water socket assembly test (P/N 3520-0610-01 to 3520-0610-03)? 100 to 150 psig 188 to 198 psig 200 to 250 psig 50 to 100 psig. What does the rail assembly provide connections for (P/N 3520-0610- 01 to 3520-0610-03)? Two coffee makers One coffee maker Multiple coffee makers An espresso machine. How is the rail assembly connected to the coffee maker (P/N 3520- 0610-01 to 3520-0610-03)? Using screws By welding Sliding in or out of the rail assembly Using adhesive. What is the primary source of power for the Espresso Coffee Maker? 115 VAC, 400 HZ, three phase, wyeconnected potentia Three 400 watt heaters Brew Cup assembly Steam operated milk frothing nozzle. How is the Espresso Coffee Maker mounted in the aircraft? On a permanently installed base assembly Held securely by a single release pin Through water inlet connector On the brew shelf. What component is responsible for providing close dimensional controls for the Espresso Maker? Brew Cup assembly Espresso Cup Brew handle Platen surface. Which part of the Espresso Coffee Maker serves as the brew chamber? Brew Cup assembly Espresso Cup Platen surface Brew handle. How is water heated in the Espresso Coffee Maker? By three 400 watt heaters mounted at the rear By the steam operated milk frothing nozzle By the solenoid By the pump. What is the power requirement for operation of the Espresso Coffee Maker? 115 VAC, 400 HZ, three phase, wyeconnected potential Brew Cup assembly Steam operated milk frothing nozzle Platen surface. What must be in place to start a brew cycle in the Espresso Coffee Maker? Espresso Cup with the brew handle in the down position Brew Cup assembly Espresso Pod Brew shelf. What indicates that the water heater assembly is up to brew temperature? READY light is illuminated Espresso Cup with the brew handle in the down position Brew Cup assembly Espresso Pod. When does milk frothing start in the automatic mode? When the water heater assembly reaches the froth temperature When the pump is activated When the brew cycle is completed When the brew handle is raised. How long does the brew cycle last? Between 18 to 24 seconds Between 1 minute 30 seconds to 1 minute 50 seconds Between 143 and 157 psig Between 100 to 150 psig. How is milk frothing initiated in the manual mode? By pressing and holding the FROTH button By pressing the BREW switch By lowering the brew handle By pressing the ON/OFF switch. What safety feature prevents operation of the Espresso Coffee Maker under certain conditions? Control circuits Thermal Switches Pressure relief valves Megohmmeter . How is the Espresso Coffee Maker pressurized during aircraft pressure testing? Through water inlet connector to 100 psig (689.4 kPag) Through solenoid (S9) to fill the tank assembly Through manifold pressure relief valve line to 150 psig (1034.2 kPag) Through Brew Cup assembly. What is tested by applying a voltage of 500 VDC during the dielectric test? Insulation resistance Leakage current flow Temperature regulation circuit The housing. Which component is checked by connecting an ohmmeter from P1-G to ground stud SG2? Relay (K1) Brew handle Brew shelf Solenoid (S9). What is tested during the proof pressure test? Pressure relief valve Heater (HR1-HR4) Water inlet connector Brew Cup assembly. When does the relay cut off power to all three heaters during the relay check? When ON/OFF switch is in the ON position When the brew cycle is completed When the water heater assembly reaches the froth temperature When the pump is activated . What indicates that the Espresso Coffee Maker is ready for brewing? READY indicator FROTH light BREW light ON/OFF switch. How is the time for the brew cycle monitored during the Espresso test? With a stopwatch By observing amperage draw By pressing the FROTH button By observing the READY lamp. What is the primary purpose of the procedure section in the manual? To provide testing and fault isolation procedures To describe the operation of the Espresso Coffee Make To list the safety features To describe the mounting of the Espresso Coffee Maker in the aircraft. What material is used for the construction of the Beverage Maker? Cast aluminum-magnesium-titanium Stainless stee Plastic Copper. What component heats the water in the Beverage Maker? Three 900 watt immersion type heaters mounted in the bottom of the tank Brew handle Platen heater Server cavity. What is the purpose of the brew chamber in the Beverage Maker? To retain grounds in the event of a torn or broken pillow pack To hold the coffee or tea bags To heat a server full of hot water To maintain liquid temperature between 165° F to 195° F. What does the LOW WATER indicator light indicate in the Beverage Maker? Low water level in the tank High water temperature Full server Brew cycle completion. How is the brew cycle reset if it is interrupted in the Beverage Maker? By pressing the POWER button OFF and ON again By pressing the BREW button again By lifting the brew handle By removing the brew cup. What type of material is the inner oven made of? Stainless steel Aluminum Plastic Glass. Which part of the oven assembly is made of light-weight plastic? Frame Assembly Door Assembly Secondary Latches Water Container Assembly. What is the purpose of the Outer Case Assembly? To provide protection to the inner oven To regulate the temperature inside the oven To circulate hot air in the oven To hold the transport handle. Where is the Oven Control Module (OCM) installed? In the inner oven In the outer case In the rear cover plate In the OCM compartment at the front side of the unit. What does the thermo fuse assembly provide protection against? Unexpected overheat Power failure Water leakage Overcooling. What is the function of the net-filter assembly? To improve the EMI properties of the oven To control the pressure in the oven cavity To provide protection against overheating To circulate hot air in the oven. What does the cooling fan do when the unit is energized? Reduces the temperatures around the electronic components Increases the temperatures around the electronic components Provides additional airflow in the oven Circulates water in the plumbing system. Where is the optical door sensor installed? On the rear cover plate assembly On the frame assembly On the top of the OCM guiding assembly On the inner oven. What is the purpose of the water container assembly? Supplies potable water to the water system of the unit Drains water from the oven cavity Cools down the electronic components Provides additional insulation to the unit. Which valve assembly controls the water injection into the oven cavity? NC Valve Assembly NO Valve Assembly Solenoid Water Pump Condenser. What does the drain-out valve (V3) do during the cooking cycle? Drains the water that is present in the condenser Controls the pressure in the oven cavity Injects water into the oven cavity Drains water from the water container assembly. When does the water pump (V1) start to pump repeated shots of water into the oven cavity? When the oven cavity reaches a temperature of ± 100°C When the steam-out valve (V4) closes When the drain-out valve (V3) opens When the cooling fan is activated. What is the purpose of the final test on the Unit Under Test (UUT)? To determine the modification status of the unit To verify the error log To do the power-up test To ensure the unit is ready for service. What does the Airline Setting Package (ASP) support? All the software and publications for the Unit Under Test (UUT) The installation of the unit The maintenance tasks of the unit The modification of the unit . What should be done to verify the modification status of the unit? Examine the Modification Record Placards and/or Amendment Placard of the unit Apply an amendment placard to the unit Remove the OCM from the UUT Start the power supply to energize the UUT. What is shown on the display during the power-up test? HMI / PWR software version and the green “Ready” light Error messages Temperature readings Cooking program time. What type of language is the CMM written in? English French Spanish Simplified Technical English (STE). What manual structure section provides a list of all the major subdivisions and illustrations in the CMM? Front pages (TOC) Introduction (INTRO) List of Effective Pages (LEP) List of Sections. What is the purpose of the Transmittal Sheet (TS)? It gives a list of revised pages with brief descriptions of revisions It provides filing instructions for all the supplied pages It contains the latest revision status and revision history of the CMM It contains the manufacturer's masthead and initial issue date. Which part number system element identifies the configuration code of the unit? 2nd element (XX) 1st element (43XXXXX) 3rd element (XX) 4th element (XX). What is the function of the Maintenance Task Oriented Support System (MTOSS)? Permits the use of Electrical Data Processing (EDP) of maintenance data Organizes maintenance tasks and sub tasks logically Provides automated sorting, retrieval, and management of digitized data. All of the above. How many elements does an MTOSS number have? Seven Five Six Four. What type of system is the plumbing system? Closed-loop system Open-loop system Hybrid system None of the above. Which valve assembly controls the pressure in the oven cavity? NO Valve Assembly NC Valve Assembly Solenoid Water Pump Condenser. When does the drain-out valve (V3) open during the operation of the plumbing system? When the oven cavity reaches a pressure of ± 55 millibar [0.8 psi]. When the oven cavity temperature is more than ± 100°C [212°F]. When the drain-out valve (V3) deenergizes When the cooling fan is activated. What is the purpose of the drain-out valve (V3)? Drains the water that is present in the condenser to return the kept water back to the oven cavity. Controls the pressure in the oven cavity. Injects water into the oven cavity Drains water from the water container assembly. What does the Airline Setting Package (ASP) contain? All the software and publications for the Unit Under Test (UUT) The installation instructions for the unit. The maintenance tasks for the unit. The modification procedures for the unit. . What is the purpose of the Transmittal Sheet (TS)? To give a list of revised pages with brief descriptions of revisions. To provide filing instructions for all the supplied pages. To contain the latest revision status and revision history of the CMM To contain the manufacturer's masthead and initial issue date. What is the function of the Maintenance Task Oriented Support System (MTOSS)? To permit the use of Electrical Data Processing (EDP) of maintenance data. To organize maintenance tasks and sub tasks logically. To provide automated sorting, retrieval, and management of digitized data All of the above. How many elements does an MTOSS number have? Seven Five Six Four. What is the purpose of the Maintenance Task Oriented Support System (MTOSS)? To permit the use of Electrical Data Processing (EDP) of maintenance data To organize maintenance tasks and sub tasks logically To provide automated sorting, retrieval, and management of digitized data. All of the above. What does the MTOSS numbering system aim to achieve? To provide a means for automated sorting, retrieval, and management of digitized data. To organize maintenance tasks and sub tasks logically. To permit the use of Electrical Data Processing (EDP) of maintenance data. To create unique numbers for all tasks or subtasks. How many elements does an MTOSS number have? Seven Five Six Four. What does the sixth element of an MTOSS number indicate? It allows for identification of differences in configurations, methods, and techniques. It indicates that a service bulletin applies to the task. It identifies the configuration code of the unit. It is reserved for customer use. What does the seventh element of an MTOSS number represent? It is a three-position alphanumeric number reserved for customer use It identifies the configuration code of the unit It allows for identification of differences in configurations, methods, and techniques. It indicates that a service bulletin applies to the task. What is the function of the Transmittal Sheet (TS)? To give a list of revised pages with brief descriptions of revisions To contain the manufacturer's masthead and initial issue date To provide filing instructions for all the supplied pages. To contain the latest revision status and revision history of the CMM. How is the DF1000/DF1075 Oven series described in the manual? Manufactured by B/E Aerospace to heat pre-cooked in-flight meals on board the aircraft Designed for home use to prepare various types of meals Used primarily in industrial kitchens for large-scale meal preparation Suitable for outdoor camping and cooking activities. What material is the inner oven assembly made of? Stainless steel Aluminum Ceramic Plastic. What is the purpose of the Motor Assembly (M1) fuses? To protect the motor assembly against an overheat situation. To regulate the speed of the motor assembly To provide power to the motor assembly To prevent overheating of the outer case assembly. How does the 3-phase safety device operate? It operates a snap-action switch which opens the contacts in the electric circuit. It regulates the temperature inside the oven. It controls the speed of the motor assembly It resets automatically after an overheating event. What is the purpose of the Power Module Assembly? To control the switching of the motor and the heating elements To provide power to the lighting system. To regulate the temperature inside the oven. To filter out electromagnetic interference (EMI). How are the semi-conductors in the Power Module Assembly cooled? They are installed on a heat sink to decrease the temperature. They are cooled by a liquid coolant system They are passively cooled by the surrounding air. They are submerged in a cooling oil bath. What is the purpose of the Electronic filters applied in the Power Module Assembly? To obey the last requirements for EMI (Electro Magnetic Interference). To regulate the voltage supplied to the motor To increase the efficiency of the heating elements To prevent electrical surges. What are the new items included in the upgraded Power Board? Thermostat on the Printed Circuit Board (PCB) and thermostat on the heat sink. Voltage regulator and current limiter Heat-resistant wiring and reinforced connectors Automatic shutdown mechanism and emergency stop button. How does the 3-Phase circuit breaker function in the Power Module Assembly? It interrupts the power to the motor and the OCM when the current is too high It regulates the voltage supplied to the heating elements. It switches between different power phases to maintain balance. It controls the speed of the motor assembly. What is the primary purpose of the outer case assembly? To provide structural support and protection for the inner components To regulate the temperature inside the oven. To house the control panel and user interface. To facilitate easy transportation and installation. What is the primary function of the Motor Assembly (M1)? To drive the fan responsible for circulating hot air inside the oven To control the temperature inside the oven. To regulate the speed of the rotating tray. To power the electronic display and control panel. What is the purpose of the semi-conductors in the Power Module Assembly? To switch the motor and the heating elements on and off. To measure the voltage and current flowing through the circuit. To provide structural support for the electronic components To regulate the temperature inside the oven. . What is the main objective of the MTOSS numbering system? To provide a standardized method for organizing maintenance tasks and sub tasks To automate the repair process through Electrical Data Processing (EDP). To ensure the compatibility of parts across different models. To create a unique identifier for each maintenance procedure. . What is the significance of the seventh element in an MTOSS number? It allows for customization by the customer for specific maintenance tasks. It indicates the configuration code of the unit. It identifies the maintenance function being performed. It signifies the type of maintenance manual being used. . What do ULD and ULB stand for? Universal Locator Device and Universal Locator Beacon Underwater Locator Device and Underwater Locator Beacon Universal Landing Device and Underwater Locator Beacon Underwater Locator Device and Universal Locator Beacon . What does "LF-ULD" ? A low-frequency underwater locator beacon attached to the aircraft fuselage A high-frequency underwater locator device used in maritime vessels A low-frequency underwater locator device fitted to the aircraft fuselage A low-frequency universal locator device used in aviation recorders. what does "Sleep mode current" mean? The current required to power the internal micro-controller while the ULD is not activated The current required to power the internal micro-controller while the ULD is in use The power consumption of the ULD during data recording The power consumption of the ULD during emergency activation. What is the main function of a multimeter ? Measuring only voltage in electrical circuits Measuring current and voltage in electrical circuits Combining several measurement functions in one unit, including voltage, current, and resistance Measuring resistance in electronic devices only. What does the term "Operating / transport temperature range" refer to? The temperature range in which the ULD operates underwater The environmental temperature range the DC-Meter can be exposed to during usage or transportation The temperature range suitable for storing ULDs The optimal temperature range for activating ULDs. What is the primary purpose of the Zone Controller (ZC)? To monitor the fuel levels of the aircraft To control air flow and temperature in the aircraft-cabin zones To manage the aircraft's navigation systems To communicate with ground control during flight. How do the main and secondary sections of the ZC operate? They operate together to enhance performance They operate independently with different tasks They operate only one at a time while the other is off They operate interchangeably with the same functions. Where is the control program (flight software) stored? In the main section's RAM In the secondary section's ROM In an erasable programmable readonly memory (EPROM) on the CPU board In the aircraft's central database. What happens if the main section of the ZC fails? The system shuts down completely The secondary section takes over with full capabilities The secondary section takes over with limited capabilities The aircraft's environmental control system stop. What is the function of the Non Volatile Memory (NVM) in the ZC? To store temporary data during flight To keep internal and external failure data To manage the air flow in the aircraft cabin To control the temperature of the forward passenger cabin. What are the primary functions of the Zone Controller (ZC)? To control fuel flow and pressure To control air temperature and flow in specific cabin zones To manage communication with air traffic control To monitor the aircraft's structural integrity. How is the operation of the ZC controlled? Manually by the flight crew Automatically by software after power up Through direct input from ground control By the air conditioning pack controllers (PC 1 and PC 2). What type of data does the ZC send and receive on the ARINC 429 busses? Weather data Operational data Navigation data Passenger information. What role does the secondary section play during normal operation of the ZC? It manages the air flow in the aircraft It is in an active standby mode It monitors the fuel levels It controls the communication systems. What does the ZC do if the Cabin Intercommunication Data System (CIDS) is detected? Shuts down the system Initiates a self-diagnostic test Identifies the type of ZC installation Increases the temperature in the flight deck. What is the main role of the Flight Augmentation Computer (FAC)? To control the fuel injection system To manage the aircraft's navigation system To control yaw damper, rudder trim, and rudder travel To monitor the aircraft's electrical systems. How does the FAC control the rudder trim? By direct manual input from the pilot Through control laws after acquiring command switch position and FMGC ARINC orders By adjusting the hydraulic pressure Through real-time satellite dat. What is the function of the monitor channel in the FAC? To receive and consolidate sensor data, and monitor servo loops To control the aircraft's lighting system To manage the communication systems To override the command channel during emergencies. What type of data does the command channel in the FAC receive? Weather data Sensor data and discrete inputs to compute control laws Navigation data Passenger information. What happens if the monitor channel detects an issue with the servo loops? The aircraft's engines are shut down The FAC switches to the opposite FAC The flight crew is alerted to take manual control The system enters a diagnostic mode. What type of data does the FIDS part of the Flight Augmentation Computer (FAC) receive? Weather data Arinc data from AFS computers and CFDIU Navigation data Maintenance data from the flight crew. How are data exchanges between the command channel and the monitor channel facilitated? Through a high-speed Arinc bus Through a low-speed Arinc bus Through a dedicated Ethernet connection Through a satellite link. What does the digital part of each channel in the FAC primarily handle? Sensor acquisition and power amplification Input/output system and control law computation Navigation system management Maintenance data processing. How many types of functions does the FAC perform, and what are they? Two types: input management and output management Three types: control law computation, input management, and output management Four types: engage logic, control law computation, output management, and input management Five types: input management and monitoring, control law computation and synchronization, control rudder surface servo loop engage logic, and output management . What does each channel in the FAC have in addition to its own digital part? Its own monitor channel Its own power supply Its own command switch Its own servo trim. What functions does the POWER Command board perform? Navigation data processing Monitoring aircraft engines Controlling the yaw, rudder trim, and rudder travel limit channels Managing the aircraft's fuel system. What type of sensors provide position feedback signals to the POWER Command board? Rotary Variable Differential Transducer (RVDT) and Linear Variable Differential Transducer (LVDT) Accelerometers Gyroscopes Pressure sensors. How many inputs does the converter with 16 inputs have on the POWER Command board? 8 inputs 12 inputs 16 inputs 20 inputs. What is the purpose of the engagement logic provided for each channel on the POWER Command board? To monitor the aircraft's structural integrity To control the engagement of the servo channels To adjust the aircraft's altitude To regulate the cabin temperature . Besides controlling the servo channels, what other functions does the POWER Command board perform? Monitoring power supply voltages and ARINC transmission lines Sending weather updates to ground control Adjusting the aircraft's lighting system Transmitting navigation data to the cockpit displays. What is the purpose of the Flight Control Unit (FCU) in the Auto Fl only (AFS) configuration? To control the aircraft's landing gea To manage the crew selection process To provide controls and autopilot functions To display weather data. How many FCUs are included in the AFS configuration? 1 FCU 2 FCUs 3 FCUs 4 FCUs. How does the AFS operate? Only under manual control Only under auto computed control by the FMGC Both under manual and auto computed control based on MCDU data Based on the data selected on the FCU. What controls does the FCU provide? Flight Director (FD) and Electronic Instruments System (EIS) Autopilot (AP) and Autothrust Weather display and navigation data Crew selection and long-term guidance. Where are the symbol displays on the Primary Flight Display (PFD) located? On the FCU On the MCDU On the EIS Control panels On the Autothrust pane. What type of system is the RESCU 406AFN ELT? Automatic fixed type ELT Manual ELT Portable ELT Semi-automatic ELT. Where is the RESCU 406AFN transmitter unit usually located in the aircraft? In the cockpit In the engine compartment In the tail of the aircraft Under the passenger seats. What signals does the RESCU 406AFN beacon transmit upon activation? 406 MHz signals only 121.5/243 MHz signals only Both 406 MHz signals and 121.5/243 MHz signals Weather updates. What is the function of AIM or NAIM in addition to the transmitter unit? To provide navigation instructions to the crew To monitor engine performance To download aircraft identification information to the transmitter unit To control the cabin temperature. What capability does the NAIM provide in addition to the AIM? It allows for storage and automatic reprogramming of aircraft specific information It enables communication with air traffic control It provides emergency medical assistance It facilitates communication with ground maintenance crew. What is the purpose of the BMP programming tool? To monitor engine performance To provide navigation instructions to the crew To program the transmitter unit with a unique digital message To control the cabin temperature . What components are included in the BMP programming tool? Personal computer, CD ROM, and a programming cable BMP programming box, programming cable(s), and a PC interface cable Laptop, AC adapter, and a USB cable Smartphone, Bluetooth adapter, and a power bank. How is the BMP programming box powered? By a built-in battery By solar energy By an AC adapter plugged into a 120 VAC outlet By a USB connection to the personal computer. How does the BMP programming tool interact with the transmitter unit (TU), AIM, or NAIM? Through a wireless connection Through programming cables Through infrared communication Through Bluetooth pairing. What happens if the AIM or NAIM is part of the system? The TU is automatically programmed when the next self-test is performed with the AIM or NAIM attached The TU cannot be programmed The TU must be manually programmed using the BMP The system does not require programming. What components make up the RESCU 406AFN ELT system? Transmitter unit, Antenna, Remote panel, Audible alarm, AIM or NAIM Transmitter unit, Receiver, Satellite dish, Power supply, GPS module Antenna, Remote control, Weather sensor, Navigation system, Emergency beacon Battery pack, Solar panel, Charging unit, Control panel, Satellite modem. How does the transmitter unit detect a crash? Through satellite imagery Using an internal G-switch By monitoring air traffic control signals By analyzing weather patterns. What frequencies does the transmitter unit transmit signals on? 121.5 MHz only 243 MHz only 406 MHz only 121.5 MHz, 243 MHz, and 406 MHz. What is the purpose of the AIM or NAIM module? To monitor engine performance To provide automated reprogramming of the 406 MHz message To control cabin temperature To transmit weather updates. Why does the AIM or NAIM not require regular maintenance? Because it is powered by the aircraft's 28 VDC supply Because it is made of durable materials Because it has a built-in self-test feature Because it does not have complex circuitry. What protocol does the transmitter unit default to if no NAIM is attached? Serialized aviation user protocol Aviation user protocol 24-bit aircraft address protocol Aircraft operator designator and serial number protoco. If a NAIM is attached, what protocol does the transmitter unit default to? Serialized identification, standard location protocol 24-bit aircraft address, standard location protocol Aircraft operator designator and serial number, standard location protocol Serial number, user location protocol. What component activates the transmitter unit upon crash? Internal G-switch External antenna Battery pack Microcontroller. How many analog signals does the transmitter unit transmit for closein homing? None One Two Three. What powers all the circuits of the transmitter unit? External power supply Internal lithium battery Solar panels Fuel cells. How long is the battery service life of the transmitter unit from the date of manufacture of the battery pack? 5 years 8 years 10 years 12.5 years. What ensures no inadvertent activation of the transmitter unit during transportation or storage? Locking switch on the front panel Remote panel GPS module Audible alarm. What type of recording device is the SSCVR system? Flight data recorder Cockpit voice recorder Weather recorder Engine performance recorder. How many channels of audio does the SSCVR simultaneously record? Two Three Four Five. What type of memory does the SSCVR use to retain recorded information? Magnetic tape Solid state crash survivable memory Optical disk Hard drive. According to the text, what does the SSCVR retain in its memory? Only audio data Only digital communications data Only timing correlation signals Audio, digital communications data, and timing data. What standard does the SSCVR fully satisfy? FAA regulations EUROCAE Document ED-56A ICAO standards NTSB guidelines. What optional feature does the SSCVR provide for future status reporting? Audio playback Digital communication Helicopter rotor speed Status information to an OMS . What are the three components of the SSCVR system as shown in Figure 1? Controller board A1, Power supply A2, ULB Interface and control board, CSMU, Power supply A2 SRUS, Controller board A1, ULB Basic system chassis, CSMU, Power supply A2. What is the main function of the CSMU in the SSCVR system? Controlling states and modes Providing power on reset and monitoring power failure Providing storage for input and ancillary system data Converting aircraft power to secondary power. What is the purpose of the power supply in the SSCVR system? Storing input data Providing controlled operation Converting aircraft power Performing erase and test functions. What additional component can be installed as an option in the SSCVR system? Controller board A1 Power supply A2 ULB Handle. What requirements does the SSCVR comply with? TSO C-123a and TSO C-124a FAA regulations EUROCAE Document ED-56A ICAO standards. How are erase and test functions initiated in the SSCVR system? Automatically By discrete control signals activated by push buttons Through external systems By power up initialization. What does the SSCVR system record to crash protected memory? Audio and digital communications data Timing data and rotor speed data All input data Power on reset and power failure monitoring . What is the main function of the SSCVR? To perform erase and test functions To record audio and digital communications data To store power failure data To monitor cockpit temperature. How are erase and test functions initiated in the SSCVR? Automatically By push buttons in the cockpit Through external systems By power down monitoring. What does the power up function of the SSCVR perform? Performs power on BIT to determine system integrity Records audio and digital communication data Activates the front panel BITE indicator Sets maintenance discrete in failure mode. What data does the record, test, and status function of the SSCVR store? Only audio data Only digital communication data Audio, digital communication, timing, and rotor speed data Configuration data and error logging data . What is the purpose of the background test performed in the record, test, and status function of the SSCVR? To verify operation of the unit o download stored data To initialize power up To set maintenance discrete in failure mode . What happens if a failure is detected during the record, test, and status function of the SSCVR? Front panel BITE indicator is activated, maintenance discrete is set in failure mode, and error condition is reported to OMS system Front panel BITE indicator is deactivated, unit enters standby mode, and error condition is ignored Front panel BITE indicator is activated, unit stops recording, and error condition is deleted Front panel BITE indicator flashes, unit reboots, and error condition is stored in temporary memory. What happens if a failure is detected during power up of the SSCVR? Failure condition is stored in crash protected memory, front panel BITE indicator is continuously on, and maintenance discrete is set in failure mode Failure condition is ignored, front panel BITE indicator flashes, and unit continues normal operation Failure condition is reported to OMS system only, front panel BITE indicator is activated, and maintenance discrete is set in failure mode Failure condition is reported to OMS system only, front panel BITE indicator is activated, and unit enters standby mode . What data does the push to test function of the SSCVR check? Audio data Digital communication data System integrity Configuration data. How does the SSCVR indicate a successful self-test during the push to test function? By activating the status LED once and emitting an 800-Hz tone By deactivating the status LED and emitting a 400-Hz tone By activating the microphone monitor once By displaying a message on the cockpit display. The letter symbol used to represent electrical current is I E R. The letter symbol used to represent electrical pressure is E R I. The letter symbol used to represent electrical resistance is R I E. The point in an aircraft electrical system from which the various circuits get their power is called a bus an electrical load contactor. Three things that happen in an electrical circuit when current flows through it are: heat is produced in the conductor magnetic field surrounds the conductor voltage is dropped across the load. If a 4-gage copper wire routed in free air is to be replaced with an aluminum wire that is to carry the same amount of current, a ___-gage aluminum wire will have to be used. 2 4 6 8. The smallest size aluminum wire recommended for use in aircraft electrical systems is ___-gage. 4 6 8 10. When selecting the size wire to use in an aircraft electrical system, two things must be considered. These are: current-carrying capability allowable voltage drop wire length all of the above. The longer line in the symbol for a battery indicates the ___ terminal. positive negative. Electrons flowing in an electrical circuit flow in the ___ direction as the arrowheads in a semiconductor diode symbol. opposite same Nearby. Conventional current in an electrical circuit is assumed to flow in the ___ direction as the arrowheads in a semiconductor diode symbol same opposite Nearby . Three things that must be included in all complete electrical circuits are: a source of electrical energy an electrical load conductors to join the source with the load . If the bar in the symbol for a semiconductor diode is connected to the negative terminal of a battery, the diode is ___ biased. forward afther . A forward-biased diode acts as a/an ___ switch. closed open. The voltage drop across a forward-biased silicon diode is approximately ___ volt. 0.7 0.6 0.9. The voltage drop across a forward-biased silicon diode ___ vary with the current flowing through it. does not does. A semiconductor device that can be used as a voltage sensor is a/an zener diode bus. A zener diode used as a voltage regulator is ___ biased reverse Nearby . An electrical relay has a ___ core. fixed Movable Electromagnetic. A solenoid has a ___ core Unbiased movable Forward Reverse. When the base of an NPN transistor has the same polarity as the collector, the transistor acts as a/an ___ switch. closed Open. When a transistor is connected in an amplifier circuit, bringing its base polarity closer to that of the collector ___ increases decreases . A semiconductor device that acts in the same way as a holding relay is a/an silicon controlled rectifier Thyristor Triac. In a complete series circuit, the sum of the voltage drops is the same as the applied voltage. This sentence is (true or false). true False . The voltage drop across an open switch in a series circuit is (zero volts or battery voltage). battery voltage zero volts. The voltage drop across a closed switch in a series circuit is (zero volts or battery voltage). zero volts battery voltage. The amount of current that flows through each path of a parallel circuit is determined by the ___ of the path resistance battery voltage. The voltage across each path of a parallel circuit is equal to the ___ voltage battery resistance. The reference from which all voltage is measured in an aircraft electrical system is called the ___. ground negative. Return current from devices installed in an aircraft electrical system flows back to the battery through the aircraft structure Negative bus Ground. The battery terminal that is normally grounded is the ___ (negative or positive) terminal. negative positive. Circuit breakers and fuses are installed in a circuit primarily to protect the (wiring or circuit devices). wiring circuit devices. The one circuit in an aircraft electrical system that is not required to be protected by a circuit protection device is the main ___ circuit. starter Battery. Circuit breakers used in aircraft electrical systems must be of the ___ type trip-free trip-free. A trip-free circuit breaker (can or cannot) be manually held closed in the presence of a fault. cannot cannot. Automatic reset circuit breakers (are or are not) approved for use in aircraft electrical circuits are are not . An electrical circuit that has 12 fuses rated at 30 amps is required to carry at least ___ 30-amp fuses as spares. 6 8 10. Current that is induced into a conductor by a changing current in another nearby conductor is called ___ current. Mutual induced. The amount of current that is induced by a changing magnetic field is determined by the ___ of change of the magnetic field. rate Frequency Magnitude. The direction of flow of induced current is ___ that of the current that caused it. opposite positive negative. The diode that is placed across the coil of a battery contactor is ___ biased by the battery. (forward or reverse) reverse Forward Neutral. Refer to Figure . The device that prevents the GPU from overcharging a fully charged battery is resistor R switch the fuse. Refer to Figure . The device that prevents the GPU from being connected to the aircraft electrical system if its polarity is incorrect is diode Dy switch the fuse. Refer to Figure. The device that prevents the GPU from being connected to the aircraft electrical system if there is a short in the battery is the fuse switch diode. The prime source of electrical power in an aircraft is the alternator Battery Inverter . The load current produced in a AC alternator is produced in the stator Armature Field windings. In an A-circuit generator, the voltage regulator is between the field terminal of the generator and (ground or the armature). ground the armature. The three units in a generator control used with low-output DC generators are: voltage regulator current limiter reverse-current cutout. A 20-gage wire will carry ___ current than an 18-gage wire more less the same none of the above. A continuous electrical load in a 28-volt electrical system is allowed to produce a voltage drop of ___ volt/s. 0.5 1.0 1.5 2.0 . An intermittent electrical load in a 14-volt electrical system is allowed to produce a voltage drop of ___ volt/s 0.5 1.0 1.5 2.0. The contacts of a reverse-current cutout relay are normally open Close . The contacts of a vibrator-type voltage regulator are normally closed open. The contacts of a vibrator-type current limiter are normally open closed . A carbon-pile voltage regulator acts as a variable ___ in the generator field circuit resistor no. The output current produced by the two generators in a twin-engine installation are kept the same by ___ circuit in the voltage regulators. diverging paralleling. Current through the paralleling circuit in a twin-engine electrical system using carbon-pile voltage regulators is provided by the voltage drops across the resistors starter. Many general aviation turbine-powered aircraft combine the ___ and ___ into one single unit starter, generator generator,starter. The starter windings in a starter-generator are ___ (series or shunt) windings series Parallel . A zero-center ammeter ___ show the amount of current the alternator is producing. does does not. A loadmeter is calibrated in ___ of the rated alternator or generator output percentage voltage. The voltage produced in the stator windings of a DC alternator is AC DC. DC electricity is produced in a DC alternator by the diodes Resistors. If an alternator fails in flight and is disconnected from the main bus, the alternator field circuit should be (opened or closed). opened Closed. If an alternator produces too high a voltage, the overvoltage protector opens the ___ circuit field Load . The load current produced in a DC generator is produced in the ___ (rotating or stationary) coils rotating stationary . A DC alternator can produce its rated current at a lower RPM than a DC generator because of the greater number of ___ in the alternator field poles commutator, brushes. DC electricity is produced in a DC generator by the commutator, brushes main power . A DC alternator ___ (does or does not) require a current limiter does not does . A DC generator ___ (does or does not) require a current limiter. does not does. A battery contactor is a/an continuous intermittent constant variable. A starter solenoid is a/an (continuous or intermittent)-duty solenoid. continuous Intermittent constant variable. Normally the only circuit in an aircraft electrical system that does not require a circuit breaker or fuse is the ___ circuit. starter lighting avionics main power . The navigation light circuit in Figure. is an example of a ___ circuit. series paralleL complex hybrid . In the landing light circuit shown in Figure it ___ possible to turn on the landing light without the taxi light also coming on. is is not sometimes is always is. In the landing gear circuit shown in Figure , three switches that must be in the correct position for current to flow to the landing gear relay coil are gear switch up-limit switch gear safety switch all of the above . In the landing gear circuit shown in Figure, the landing gear warning horn ___ sound if only one throttle is pulled back to the idle position. will will not sometimes will never will. When the antiskid brake system shown in Figure, is operating properly, the aircraft cannot be landed with the brakes applied because the brakes cannot be applied until weight is on the landing gear and both ___ switches are closed. gear weight squat brake. According to the circuit of the propeller deicing system in Figure , the prop deicer ammeter shows ___ the current flowing to the deicers when the system is operating. manually automatically intermittently constantly. In the turbine-engine autoignition circuit seen in Figure 7-55, the autoignition-armed light turns ___ when the compressor-discharge pressure drops low enough for its pressure switch to supply power to the ignition power relay. on oFF intermittent constant. According to the reciprocating engine starting and ignition system seen in Figure 7-56, the engine is started on the ___ magneto left right both neither. Avionic equipment must be isolated from the aircraft electrical system when the engine is being started because of spikes of high ___ voltage. induced residual generated constant. The generators installed on large turbojet aircraft produce ___ electricity AC DC both neither. Direct current is produced in the electrical system seen in Figure by the alternator generator TR unit battery. The frequency of the AC produced by generators driven by turbine engines is held constant by the ___ units voltage regulator current limiter constant-speed drive all of the above. Three measurements that are made of the output of the three main generators in Figure are: voltage frequency power all of the above. Use the wire chart in Figure to find the wire size needed to carry a continuous load of 50 amps for 60 feet in a 28-volt electrical system. The wire is to be routed in a bundle. The smallest wire is a ___-gage. 2 4 6 8. Use the wire chart in Figure to find the size electrical cable needed to carry an intermittent load of 150 amps for 20 feet in a 14-volt electrical system without exceeding a 1-volt drop. The smallest wire is a ___-gage. 2 4 6 8. The electromagnetic field surrounding wires carrying alternating current can be prevented from interfering with sensitive electronic equipment by using __ coaxial cable shielded wire twisted pair all of the above . A radio transmitter is normally connected to its antenna with a ___ cable twisted pair shielded coaxial fiber optic. The half of an AN or MS quick-disconnect connector that carries the power is fitted with ___. pins sockets both neither. A barrier-type terminal strip should not have more than ___ terminals installed on any single lug 2 3 4 5. If more than four wires need to be connected to a single point on a terminal strip, two or more lugs can be connected with a metal ___. strap bus strap wire connector . The correct size preinsulated terminal to use on a 18-gage wire would have a ___ insulation. (what color) red blue yellow green . The correct size preinsulated terminal to use on a 12-gage wire would have ___ insulation. (what color) red blue yellow green. The type of wire terminal that should be installed on a barrier-type terminal strip is a ___ type ring spade bullet pin. This wire is in the ___ system landing gear deicing lighting communication . This is wire number ___ in this circuit. 1 2 3 4. This is the ___ segment in this wire first second third fourth . This is a ___-gage wire. 18 20 22 24. This wire ___ go to ground. does does not might always . The only type lubricant that should be used when pulling a wire bundle through a piece of polyvinyl tubing is ___. silicone grease WD-40 tire talcum petroleum jelly. Wire bundles should be secured to the aircraft structure using ___ clamps. metal plastic cushion adhesive . If an electrical wire bundle is routed parallel to a fuel line, the wire bundle should be ___ the fuel line. above below beside inside . A wire bundle should be no closer than ___ inches from any control cable unless a suitable mechanical guard is installed over the wire so the cable cannot contact it. 1 2 3 4. The maximum-diameter wire bundle that may be enclosed in a rigid conduit with an inside diameter of one inch is ___. 2 inches 3 inches 4 inches 5 inches . The edges of a hole through which a wire bundle passes must be covered with a ___ sealant grommet tape adhesive . A switch used to control a 3-amp continuous flow of current in a 24- volt DC incandescent lamp circuit should be rated for at least ___ amps. 3 6 12 24. A switch used to control a 12-volt DC motor that draws a 3-amp continuous flow of current should be rated for at least ___ amps. 3 6 12 24. A circuit that is wired with an 18-gage wire should be protected with a ___-amp circuit breaker 5 10 15 20. The four basic rules for systematic troubleshooting are: Know the way the system should operate. Observe the way the system is operating. Divide the system to find the trouble Look for the obvious problems first. One of the first things to check if an electrical component does not operate is the ___. wire connector circuit breaker switch. A decision point in a logic flow chart is enclosed in a ___-shaped box square circle triangle diamond . Two characteristics of a digital multimeter that make it a valuable troubleshooting tool are its: high input impedance high degree of accuracy portability low cost. Analog multimeters have an advantage over digital multimeters in their ease to identify ___ in voltage and current changes trends spikes averages limits. Current can be measured in a circuit without having to open the circuit if a/an ___-type ammeter is used analog digital clamp-on in-line . Wave form and frequency of the voltage in an electric circuit can be observed with a/an ___. multimeter oscilloscope ammeter voltmeter . What is the purpose of a Faraday cage with static protection enclosure? Store materials not sensitive to ESD Provide additional storage space Prevent ESD damage Avoid dust accumulation . How should components be stored in approved static protection containers? With documentation inside the container Sealing the container with an approved static caution label Not sealing the container Inside a transparent plastic tube . What action is recommended if evidence of mishandling or improper storage of ESD parts is found? Return to inventory Dispose of Recheck Conduct additional tests . What precaution is mentioned regarding personal arrangement at the ESD workstation? Keep the area clean Comb hair away from the workstation Do not wear metal jewelry Do not comb hair near ESD materials . How often should ESD workstations be certified Every 6 months Annually or when moved Every 2 years Every 3 months. What is the primary purpose of using a conductive mat in the ESD workstation? Prevent static electricity buildup Provide comfort Keep the surface clean Provide thermal insulation. What is the primary purpose of an ESD wrist strap? Protect against electrical shocks Maintain user comfort Provide grounding Prevent user fatigue. What is the common threshold of sensation for an ESD shock for humans? 2,000 to 3,000 volts 3,000 to 4,000 volts 4,000 to 5,000 volts 5,000 to 6,000 volts. What should be done if an ESD wrist strap does not properly touch the skin? Adjust the strap Replace it Apply lotion Ignore it . How should ionizing fans be positioned in relation to ESD material? At 12 to 15 inches away Directly over the materia 6 inches away 20 inches away. What action is recommended if evidence of rust or corrosion is found on a stored product after 5 years? Replace bearings and relubricate Dispose of the product Return to inventory Conduct additional tests. What precaution should be taken when using ionizing fans at the workstation? Regular calibration Keep them at least 6 inches away from ESD materia Use them only with authorization Keep them close to the ESD material . What is the primary purpose of a conductive mat in the ESD workstation? Provide comfort Prevent static electricity buildup Keep the surface clean Provide thermal insulation. What is the primary purpose of an ESD wrist strap? Protect against electrical shocks Maintain user comfort Provide grounding Prevent user fatigue . What is the common threshold of sensation for an ESD shock for humans? 2,000 to 3,000 volts 3,000 to 4,000 volts 4,000 to 5,000 volts 5,000 to 6,000 volts. What should be done if an ESD wrist strap does not properly touch the skin? Adjust the strap Replace it Apply lotion Ignore it . How should ionizing fans be positioned in relation to ESD material? At 12 to 15 inches away Directly over the materia 6 inches away 20 inches away. What action is recommended if evidence of rust or corrosion is found on a stored product after 5 years? Replace bearings and relubricate Dispose of the product Return to inventory Conduct additional tests . What precaution should be taken when using ionizing fans at the workstation? Regular calibration Keep them at least 6 inches away from ESD material Use them only with authorization Keep them close to the ESD material.

Denunciar Test